STR581 Final 1.doc

1) ________ consists of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers.

A.  A promotional campaign

B.  A marketing research system

C.  A marketing information system

D.  A marketing intelligence system

E.  A marketing database

2) 3M, Hewlett-Packard, Lego, and other companies use the ________ to manage the innovation process.

A.  venture team

B.  joint- venture system

C.  stage-gate system

D.  new product “team”

E.  skunk works

3) ________ is the difference between the prospective customer’s evaluation of all the benefits and all the costs of an offering and the perceived alternatives.

A.  Customer perceived value

B.  Failure avoidance rate

C.  Perceived usefulness

D.  Report rating

E.  Competitors market share rate

4) A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads competitors’ published reports and stockholder information, the company is using ________ to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence.

A.  advisory panels

B.  intermediaries

C.  sales force surrogates

D.  external networks

E.  customer feedback systems

5) A ________ is a set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about developments in the marketing environment.

A.  marketing intelligence system

B.  marketing information system

C.  marketing research system

D.  product management system

E.  vertical system

6) A(n) ________ is any good, service, or idea that is perceived by someone as new.

A.  new idea

B.  product

C.  innovation

D.  creative product

7) Total customer satisfaction is the general feeling of pleasure or disappointment that results from comparing perceived performance to expectations. To achieve total customer satisfaction, organizations need to_____________.

A.  Lower expectations

B.  Spend more money

C.  Develop marketing campaigns

D.  Manage customer experiences

E.  Lower prices

8) Particularly when shopping for ego-sensitive products such as perfumes and expensive cars, many consumers use price as an indicator of ________.

A.  capability

B.  size

C.  ability

D.  quality

E.  status

9) A ________ consists of a group of customers who share a similar set of needs and wants.

A.  market segment

B.  market level

C.  market slice

D.  market group

E.  market target

10) A firm has to consider many factors in setting its pricing policy. We list these as a six-step process. Which of the following is NOT one of these steps?

A.  Selecting the final price.

B.  Selecting a pricing method.

C.  Researching reference prices in the target market.

D.  Selecting the pricing objective.

E.  Determining demand.

11) A marketing manager needs to know the cost of the research project before approving it. During which step in the marketing research process would such a consideration most likely take place?

A.  Step 2—develop the research plan.

B.  Step 3—information collection

C.  Step 1—drafting the research objectives.

D.  Step 1—creating decision alternatives.

E.  Step 1—defining the problem.

12) Which of the following types of marketing research firms would best be described as one that gathers consumer and trade information which they sell for a fee (e.g., Nielsen Media Research)?

A.  General-line marketing research firms

B.  Non-profit marketing research firms

C.  Specialty-line marketing research firms

D.  Syndicated-service research firms

E.  Custom marketing research firms

13) Companies normally budget marketing research at ________ percent of company sales.

A.  6.5

B.  10 to 12

C.  4

D.  2 to 3

E.  1 to 2

14) The marketing communications mix consists of six major modes of communications. Which of the following is NOT one of these modes?

A.  Packaging

B.  Advertising

C.  Sales promotions

D.  Direct marketing

E.  Personal selling

15) The chief disadvantage to a firm that decides to follow a product specialization strategy in selecting target markets is ________.

A.  competitors can easily copy any new product introductions

B.  e-commerce becomes difficult for the company

C.  the product may be supplanted by an entirely new technology

D.  logistics can become a nightmare

E.  no synergy exists

16) New-to-the- world products are ________.

A.  new products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value and replace existing products

B.  existing products that are targeted to new markets or market segments

C.  new products that supplement established product lines (package sizes, flavors, and so on)

D.  new products that allow a company to enter an established market for the first time

E.  new products that create an entirely new market

17) Major retailer types include the following EXCEPT ________.

A.  the Internet

B.  superstore

C.  catalog showroom

D.  discount store

E.  specialty store

18) Marketing communications can contribute to brand equity by establishing the brand in memory and to________ (in)a brand image.

A.  create demand

B.  communicate

C.  craft

D.  create interest

19) Price has operated as the major determinant of buyer choice among poorer nations, among poorer groups, and with ________ products.

A.  similar

B.  over the Internet

C.  commodity-type

D.  identical

20) ________ communicates a company’s intended value positioning of its product or brand to the market.

A.  Promotion

B.  Place

C.  Physical evidence

D.  Packaging

E.  Price

21) Following the ________ approach to target market selection encompasses a strong knowledge of the segment’s needs, a strong market presence, and operating economies through specializing in production, distribution, and promotion.

A.  market specialization

B.  product specialization

C.  full market coverage

D.  single-segment concentration

E.  selective specialization

22) Some intermediaries use the following: strategic planning, advanced information systems, sophisticated marketing tools, measure performance on a return-on-investment basis, segment their markets, improve their target marketing and positioning, and ________.

A.  dominant the manufacturers they do business with

B.  aggressively pursue take over strategies

C.  aggressively pursue market expansion and diversification strategies

D.  contend with dwindling customer bases

E.  aggressively “squeeze” manufacturer margins

23) To reach Generation Y, rock band Foo Fighters created a digital street team that sends targeted e-mail messages to members who “get the latest news, exclusive audio/video sneak previews, tons of chances to win great Foo Fighters prizes, and become part of the Foo Fighters Family.” Which of the following techniques for reaching Generation Y are the Foo Fighters using?

A.  Computer games

B.  Cool events

C.  Online buzz

D.  Student ambassadors

E.  Unconventional sports

24) The traditional view of conflict is the belief that conflict is _____.

A.  situationally-dependent

B.  necessary

C.  neutral

D.  harmful

E.  natural

25) The two general approaches to bargaining are known as ________.

A.  formal and informal.

B.  distributive and integrative

C.  legal and restrictive

D.  emotional and rational.

E.  affective and reflective

26) Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of conflict?

A.  something that is cared about

B.  disruption of tasks

C.  negative effects

D.  perception

27) If no one is aware of conflict, it is generally agreed that _____.

A.  conflict is inevitable

B.  no conflict exists

C.  conflict is psychologically driven as opposed to physically manifest

D.  employee-employer relations will be good

E.  conflict is subversive

28) Which of the following statements about leadership is true?

A.  leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

B.  managers are leaders.

C.  Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as or more important than formal influence.

D.  leaders are managers.

E.  Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively.

29) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?

A.  A work group consists of 3 or more people who take on self-supervising responsibilities.

B.  A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort.

C.  A work group consists of 3 or more people from across departmental or functional lines.

D.  A work group is a group comprised of 10 or more people

E.  The performance of a work group is generally greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members.

30) _____ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a “fixed pie.”

A.  Reflective

B.  Integrative

C.  Affective

D.  Conjunctive

E.  Distributive

31) Examples of off-the-job training include all of the following except _____.

A.  Internet courses

B.  apprenticeship programs

C.  public seminars

D.  videotapes

E.  classroom lectures

32) Between the late 1960s and the mid-1980s, the use of written tests declined because they were characterized as _____.

A.  unreliable

B.  discriminatory

C.  invalid

D.  mathematically flawed

E.  unprofessional

33) Which type of skill training has become increasingly important in organizations?

A.  problem solving

B.  technical

C.  interpersonal

D.  social

E.  financial

34) According to a recent survey, about ___ percent of employees working in the 1,000 largest U.S. corporations receive ethics training.

A.  50

B.  10

C.  75

D.  25

35) _____ can be used to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly.

A.  Multiple raters

B.  Due process

C.  Documenting with a journal

D.  Focusing on subjective evaluations

E.  Selective evaluation

36) Whenever Jane is successful she takes full credit for what has happened, but whenever she is unsuccessful she attributes her failure to bad luck or blames one of her fellow employees. She is guilty of _____.

A.  the halo effect

B.  attribution bias

C.  distinctiveness

D.  self-serving bias

E.  fundamental attribution error

37) A task that is subdivided into many separate jobs is considered to have _____.

A.  a high degree of work specialization

B.  a low degree of decentralization

C.  a low degree of structure

D.  a high degree of matrix structuring

E.  a high degree of departmentalization

38) Organizational structure has six key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements?

A.  work specialization

B.  departmentalization

C.  formalization

D.  location of authority

E.  centralization

39) What term is used for the tendency of an individual to attribute his own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors?

A.  consistency

B.  stereotyping

C.  self-serving bias

D.  fundamental attribution error

E.  selective perception

40) Which of the following is not a primary force for change in organizations?

A.  decreasing skill sets

B.  the nature of the workforce

C.  economic shocks

D.  technology

E.  social trends

41) Which of the following would NOT be classified as a time-series technique?

A.  box Jenkins technique

B.  trend projections

C.  exponential smoothing

D.  simple moving average

E.  regression model

42) According to Goldratt and Fox, a useful performance measure to treat inventory is ______.

A.  quick ratio

B.  dollar days

C.  current ratio

D.  inventory turnover

43) According to David Maister, the most complex projects requiring innovation and creativity are called _________.

A.  “brain surgery” projects

B.  “grinding” projects

C.  “gray hair” projects

D.  “procedures” projects

44) Operations stage toolkit for the Data Analysis and Solution Development phase include(s): I. SPC tools II. Bottleneck analysis III. Computer simulation IV. Balanced scoreboard

A.  I, II, III

B.  I, II, III, and IV

C.  II and III

D.  I and II

E.  II, III, and IV

45) If the system contains a bottleneck, the _______ is the best place for control. If there is no bottleneck, the __________ is the best place for control.

A.  bottleneck, capacity constrained resource

B.  none of these answers

C.  capacity-constrained resource, drum

D.  capacity-constrained resource, bottleneck

46) __________ says to recognize the value of hidden options in a situation, such as the foreign exchange options in some derivative instruments.

A.  The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions

B.  The Time Value of Money Principle

C.  The Principle of Comparative Advantage

D.  The Options Principle

47) Due to asymmetric information, the market fears that a firm issuing securities will do so when the stock is _________.

A.  caught up in a bear market

B.  overvalued

C.  undervalued

D.  being sold by insiders

48) Under capital rationing, given the choice among several equally attractive investments, the best tool to use is the __________.

A.  Profitability Index method

B.  Payback method

C.  Internal Rate of Return method

D.  Net Present Value method

49) A checking account is __________.

A.  a place to “collect” money between inflows and outflows

B.  an account that acts like a reservoir

C.  useful because you can add money in any amount

D.  all of these

50) __________ says to look for opportunities to invest in positive-NPV projects in foreign markets or to develop derivatives or design arrangements that enable firms to cope better with the risks they face in their foreign operations.

A.  The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency

B.  The Principle of Diversification

C.  The Principle of Risk-Return Trade-off

D.  The Principle of Valuable Ideas

51) __________ says to seek out investments that offer the greatest expected risk-adjusted real return.

A.  The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior

B.  The Signaling Principle

C.  The Principle of Incremental Benefits

D.  The Principle of Valuable Ideas

52) An investor's risky portfolio is made up of individual stocks. Which of the following statements about this portfolio is true?

A.  An investor cannot change the risk of this portfolio by her choice about personal leverage (lending or borrowing).

B.  Selling any stock in this portfolio will lower the beta of the portfolio.

C.  Each stock in the portfolio has its own beta.

D.  Each stock in the portfolio will have a beta greater than one.

53) Which of the following statements is true?

A.  The Principle of Incremental Benefits says to consider the possible ways to minimize the value lost to capital market imperfections, such as asymmetric taxes, asymmetric information, and transaction costs.

B.  The Principle of Valuable Ideas suggests to look for opportunities to create value by issuing securities that are in short supply, perhaps resulting from changes in tax law.

C.  The Time Value of Money Principle advises to include any time-value-of-money tax benefits from capital structure choices.

D.  all of these

54) An all-equity-financed firm would __________.

A.  not pay corporate income taxes because it would have no interest expense.

B.  pay corporate income taxes because it would have interest expense.

C.  not pay any income taxes because interest would exactly offset its taxable income.

D.  pay corporate income taxes if its taxable income is positive

55) “Hard” capital rationing refers to the rationing __________.

A.  always imposed by competitors

B.  imposed internally by the shareholders

C.  imposed by external factors

D.  always imposed by debt holders

56) A key variable covered in our text for the Black-Scholes OPM is __________.

A.  dividends.

B.  EPS.

C.  transaction costs.

D.  the riskless APR with continuous compounding

57) The managerial decision best addresses which of the following questions?

A.  How fast should we grow?

B.  What size of firm do we want?

C.  How should we compensate our managers?

D.  all of these

58) The financing decision best addresses which of the following questions?

A.  Should we increase our inventory?

B.  Should we issue common stock or convertible debt?

C.  Should we buy this piece of land?

D.  Should we give employees stock options?

59) Which of these investments would you expect to have the highest rate of return for the next 20 years?

A.  intermediate-term U.S. government bonds

B.  long-term corporate bonds

C.  U.S. Treasury bills

D.  anybody’s guess

60) Dimensions of risk include __________.

A.  the certainty of a negative outcome

B.  uncertainty about the future outcome

C.  the impossibility of the same return

D.  uncertainty about yesterday’s outcome

61) __________ says to recognize the value of options contained in derivatives.

A.  The Capital Market Efficiency Principle

B.  The Principle of Valuable Ideas

C.  The Options Principle

D.  The Principle of Comparative Advantage

62) Which of the following is (are) true?

A.  The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency states that differences between financial assets are measured primarily in terms of risk and return. Investors choose the highest return for a given risk level.

B.  The Principle of Comparative Advantage states that people apply the Principles of Self-Interested Behavior, Two-Sided Transactions, and Signaling to an environment characterized by similar financial assets, low transaction costs, and intense competition leads to capital market efficiency.

C.  The Principle of Valuable Ideas states that new ideas can provide value when first introduced, even in an efficient capital market.

D.  all of these answers are correct.

63) You do a study and find out that, on average, stock prices for firms decrease 3% for every 5% decrease in inside ownership. You are watching the nightly business report and find out that Magic Tape’s stock has announced that insiders have sold 10% of their holdings. You are concerned because you own 1,000 shares of Magic Tape and it had closed the day before unchanged at $30 per share. If markets are at least semi-strong form efficient, what would you expect?

A.  You would lose $4,000.

B.  You would expect Magic Tape to close at $28 the day of the announcement.

C.  You would lose $1,800.

D.  You would lose $2.00 per share

64) Which of the following is not an advantage of going public?

A.  Going public gives existing shareholders a chance to sell portions of their shares as part of the IPO giving them a cash return on their investment and allows them to diversify their investment portfolios.

B.  Going public enables a firm to raise additional capital.

C.  Going public generally brings a lower price in the public market than in the venture capital or private placement markets.

D.  Going public achieves liquidity and diversification for current shareholders

65) Incremental analysis would not be appropriate for

A.  an allocation of limited resource decision.

B.  a make or buy decision.

C.  elimination of an unprofitable segment.

D.  Analysis of manufacturing variances

66) Undertaker Corporation has a joint process that produces three products: P, G, and A. Each product may be sold at split-off or processed further and then sold. Joint processing costs for a year amount to $25,000. Other relevant data are as follows: 

Product Sales Value at Split-off Processing Costs after Split-off Sales Value at Completion

P $62,000 $5,000 $88,000

G 12,500 6,500 19,000

A 9,400 5,000 12,000

Product G _____.

A.  should be sold at split off since processing further would only reduce profits by $6,500.

B.  should be processed further to increase profits by $6,500.

C.  should be processed further to increase profits by $19,000.

D.  an be processed further or sold at split off; there is no difference in profit.

67) Cena Corporation has a joint process that produces three products: P, G, and A. Each product may be sold at split-off or processed further and then sold. Joint-processing costs for a year amount to $25,000. Other relevant data are as follows: 

Product Sales Value at Split-off Processing Costs after Split-off Sales Value at Completion

P $32,000 $5,000 $40,000

G 16,500 7,500 29,000

A 6,400 8,000 10,000

Once product P is produced, processing it further will cause profits to _____.

A.  decrease by $5,000

B.  increase by $8,000

C.  decrease by $8,000

D.  increase by $3,000

68) A transfer price exists when two segments of the same organization sell _____.

A.  a service to each other

B.  a product to the same customer

C.  a product in a foreign country

D.  the same service to competitors

69) For what purpose is the theory of constraints used?

A.  To balance performance measurement.

B.  To reduce product defects.

C.  To identify and manage constraints that bottle-neck operations.

D.  To reduce inventory levels

70) A _____ gives the expected sales under a given set of conditions.

A.  sales budget

B.  sales prediction

C.  budget forecast

D.  sales forecast

71) Important factors considered by sales forecasters include all of the following except _____.

A.  marketing research studies

B.  the desired level of sales

C.  past patterns of sales

D.  competitors’ activities

72) Effectiveness is indicated by _____.

A.  static-budget variances

B.  all of these answers are correct

C.  sales-activity variances

D.  flexible-budget variances

73) _____ is an important factor considered by sales forecasters.

A.  Estimates made by the sales force

B.  All of these answers are correct

C.  Past patterns of sales

D.  General economic conditions

74) At the break-even point of 2,000 units, variable costs are $55,000, and fixed costs are $32,000. How much is the selling price per unit?

A.  $11.50.

B.  Not enough information

C.  $43.50.

D.  $16.00.

75) A company has total fixed costs of $120,000 and a contribution margin ratio of 20%. The total sales necessary to break even are

A.  $600,000.

B.  $144,000.

C.  $480,000.

D.  $150,000.

76) A cost which remains constant per unit at various levels of activity is a

A.  fixed cost.

B.  manufacturing cost.

C.  variable cost.

D.  mixed cost.

77) For an activity base to be useful in cost behavior analysis,

A.  there should be a correlation between changes in the level of activity and changes in costs.

B.  the activity level should be constant over a period of time.

C.  the activity should always be stated in dollars.

D.  the activity should always be stated in terms of units.

78) An absorption-costing income statement separates cost into the major categories of_____.

A.  product and period

B.  all of these answers are correct

C.  manufacturing and nonmanufacturing

D.  inventoriable and noninventoriable

79) The _____ is/are NOT a difference between the standard absorption-costing format and the variable-costing format.

A.  presentation of direct manufacturing costs

B.  major cost categories

C.  computation of unit product cost

D.  presentation of fixed manufacturing cost

80) _____ costs relate to more than one product and cannot be separately identified with an individual product

A.  Bundle

B.  Allocable

C.  Common

D .   Joint

81) The last step in activity-based costing is to

A.  compute the activity-based overhead rate per cost driver.

B.  identify and classify the major activities involved in the manufacture of specific products.

C.  assign manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products.

D.  identify the cost driver that has a strong correlation to the activity cost pool.

82) Jack and Jill form a partnership. Jack runs the business in New York, while Jill vacations in Hawaii. During the time Jill is away from the business, Jack increases the debts of the business by $20,000. Which of the following statements is true regarding this debt?

A.  Only Jill is personally liable for the debt of the business, since Jack has been working and she has not.

B.  Both Jack and Jill are personally liable for the business debt.

C.  Only Jack is personally liable for the debt, since he has been the managing partner during that time.

D.  Neither Jack nor Jill is personally liable for the business debt, since the partnership is a separate legal entity.

83) The _____ is not one of the three major financial statements.

A.  income statement

B.  balance

C.  statement of cash flows

D.  statement of equity position

84) A local retail shop has been operating as a sole proprietorship. The business is growing and now the owner wants to incorporate. Which of the following is not a reason for this owner to incorporate?

A.  desire to limit the owner’s personal liability

B.  the prestige of operating as a corporation

C.  ability to raise capital for expansion

D.  the ease in transferring shares of the corporation’s stock

85) The _____ is also called the statement of financial position.

A.  balance sheet

B.  statement of retained earnings

C.  income statement

D.  statement of cash flow

86) The theory of business social responsibility that holds that a business owes duties solely to produce the highest return for its shareholders is:

A.  The maximizing profits theory.

B.  The corporate citizenship theory.

C.  The moral minimum theory.

D.  The social audit theory.

E.  The stakeholder interest theory.

87) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

A.  Canada

B.  China

C.  Japan

D.  Ecuador

E.  Mexico

88) The centerpiece of most diversity programs is _____.

A.  employee commitment

B.  human resource personnel

C.  top management commitment

D.  employee satisfaction

E.  training

89) Which social responsibility theory has been advocated by Novel Prizewinning economist Milton Friedman?

A.  Moral minimum

B.  Corporate citizenship

C.  Maximizing profits

D.  Corporate social audit

E.  Stakeholder interest

90) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with ___________, after the passage of NAFTA, _________ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

A.  Canada, Venezuela

B.  Canada, Mexico

C.  Mexico, Canada

D.  Mexico, Venezuela

E.  Great Britain, Paraguay

91) Which of the following is correct about litigating commercial disputes?

A.  Commercial disputes, because of their specialized nature, are first heard at the appellate court level.

B.  Businesses generally dislike the concept of specialized trail courts for commercial disputes because the large numbers of consumers who sue businesses in these courts have led the judges to become generally biased against business.

C.  Nearly all states have specialized trial courts that hear commercial disputes.

D.  In all states, commercial disputes must be heard in a limited-jurisdiction court.

E.  A few states have established specialized trial courts for commercial disputes.

92) Which article of the United States Constitution deals with the judicial power of the federal government?

A.  Article II.

B.  Article III.

C.  Article V.

D.  Article I.

E.  Article IV.

93) When an economist says that the demand for a product has increased, this means that:

A.  firms make less of the product available for sale.

B.  quantity demanded is greater at each possible price.

C.  the demand curve becomes steeper.

D.  consumers respond to a lower price by buying more.

94) When movie ticket prices increase, families tend to spend less time watching movies and more time at home watching videos instead. This best reflects:

A.  the income effect.

B.  diminishing marginal utility.

C.  the substitution effect.

D.  the rationing function of markets.

95) The force behind globalization in _____ was the amount of muscle, horsepower, wind power, or steam power that a country could deploy.

A.  Globalization 2.0

B.  Globalization 1.0

C.  None of these

D.  Globalization 3.0

96) The Global, Web-Based Platform enables individuals to do which of the following?

A.  access information, services, and entertainment

B.  exchange knowledge

C.  all of these answers are correct

D.  connect, compute, communicate, collaborate, and compete everywhere and all the time

E.  produce and sell goods and services

97) _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information technologies.

A.  nationalization

B.  regionalization

C.  business environment

D.  globalization

98) A _____ scale is a scale that scores an object or property without making a direct comparison to another object or property.

A.  Rating

B.  Categorization

C.  Recording

D.  Ranking

E.  Sorting

99) Marketing research is now about a ________ billion industry globally.

A.  $21.5

B.  $16.5

C.  $7.5

D.  $50

E.  $10

100) The use of a(n) _____ serves as a comparison to assess the existence and potency of the manipulation.

A.  Control group

B.  Criterion variable

C.  Field experiment

D.  Experimental group

E.  Explanatory variable

STR581 Final 2.doc

1) 3M, Hewlett-Packard, Lego, and other companies use the ________ to manage the innovation process.

A. skunk works

B. new product “team”

C. stage-gate system

D. joint- venture system

E. venture team

2) A ________ is a set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about developments in the marketing environment.

A. vertical system

B. product management system

C. marketing research system

D. marketing information system

E. marketing intelligence system

3) A(n) ________ is any good, service, or idea that is perceived by someone as new.

A. creative product

B. innovation

C. product

D. new idea

4) A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads competitors’ published reports and stockholder information, the company is using ________ to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence.

A. customer feedback systems

B. external networks

C. sales force surrogates

D. intermediaries

E. advisory panels

5) ________ consists of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers.

A. A marketing database

B. A marketing intelligence system

C. A marketing information system

D. A marketing research system

E. A promotional campaign

6) Most established companies focus on ________ when it comes to innovation.

A. competitive innovation

B. everyday innovation

C. incremental innovation

D. continuous innovation

E. demand innovation

7) ________ is the difference between the prospective customer’s evaluation of all the benefits and all the costs of an offering and the perceived alternatives.

A. Competitors market share rate

B. Report rating

C. Perceived usefulness

D. Failure avoidance rate

E. Customer perceived value

8) ________ is the result of a concentrated effort by designers, engineers, and purchasing agents to reduce the product’s overall costs.

A. Experience curve

B. Target costing

C. Learning curve

D. Least cost producer

9) In ________ marketing, the seller engages in the mass production, mass distribution, and mass promotion of one product for all buyers.

A. differentiated

B. general

C. group

D. mass

E. segmented

10) Marketers usually identify niches by ________.

A. producing products that can be used in a variety of ways

B. allowing consumers to gravitate toward product brands

C. dividing a segment into subsegments

D. conducting VALS tests

E. examining the demographics section of The Handbook of Marketing

11) Which of the following is generally considered to be the last step in the marketing research process?

A. Draft the report

B. Make the decision.

C. Analyze the information.

D. Control the environment.

E. Present the findings.

12) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific marketing situation facing the company.

A. Marketing management

B. Demographics

C. MIS (marketing information system)

D. Marketing research

E. Marketing intelligence

13) With respect to the sampling plan, three decisions must be made. The decisions are: the sampling unit—who is to be surveyed? Sample size—how many people should be surveyed? And ________.

A. sample supervisor—who will lead the sampling effort?

B. sampling procedure—how should the respondents be chosen?

C. surveyor skill—who will do the surveying?

D. sample security—how to protect the sample data?

E. sample cost—how much does sampling cost?

14) The marketing communications mix consists of six major modes of communications. Which of the following is NOT one of these modes?

A. Advertising

B. Packaging

C. Direct marketing

D. Sales promotions

E. Personal selling

15) Marketing communications can contribute to brand equity by establishing the brand in memory and to________ (in)a brand image.

A. craft

B. create demand

C. create interest

D. communicate

16) ________ communicates a company’s intended value positioning of its product or brand to the market.

A. Physical evidence

B. Promotion

C. Price

D. Place

E. Packaging

17) To reach Generation Y, rock band Foo Fighters created a digital street team that sends targeted e-mail messages to members who “get the latest news, exclusive audio/video sneak previews, tons of chances to win great Foo Fighters prizes, and become part of the Foo Fighters Family.” Which of the following techniques for reaching Generation Y are the Foo Fighters using?

A. Online buzz

B. Computer games

C. Unconventional sports

D. Cool events

E. Student ambassadors

18) New-to-the- world products are ________.

A. existing products that are targeted to new markets or market segments

B. new products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value and replace existing products

C. new products that allow a company to enter an established market for the first time

D. new products that supplement established product lines (package sizes, flavors, and so on)

E. new products that create an entirely new market

19) Following the ________ approach to target market selection encompasses a strong knowledge of the segment’s needs, a strong market presence, and operating economies through specializing in production, distribution, and promotion.

A. full market coverage

B. market specialization

C. selective specialization

D. product specialization

E. single-segment concentration

20) Price has operated as the major determinant of buyer choice among poorer nations, among poorer groups, and with ________ products.

A. commodity-type

B. similar

C. identical

D. over the Internet

21) Some intermediaries use the following: strategic planning, advanced information systems, sophisticated marketing tools, measure performance on a return-on-investment basis, segment their markets, improve their target marketing and positioning, and ________.

A. contend with dwindling customer bases

B. aggressively pursue take over strategies

C. dominant the manufacturers they do business with

D. aggressively “squeeze” manufacturer margins

E. aggressively pursue market expansion and diversification strategies

22) “Power prices” use price as a key strategic tool. These “power prices” have discovered the highly ________ effect of price on the bottom line.

A. dramatic

B. leveraged

C. direct

D. abrasive

E. soothing

23) A company can add new products through acquisition or development. The acquisition route can take three forms. The company can buy other companies, it can acquire patents from other companies, or it can buy a ________ or _________ from another company.

A. license/franchise

B. franchise/co-brand

C. franchise/acquire rights

D. license/receive permission

24) John Kotter’s view argues that management focuses on coping with complexity, whereas leadership focuses on coping with _____.

A. conflict

B. defeat

C. morale

D. success

E. change

25) Leadership is best defined as _____.

A. the ability to influence a group in goal achievement

B. implementing the vision and strategy provided by management

C. coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems

D. keeping order and consistency in the midst of change

E. not a relevant variable in modern organizations

26) Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of conflict?

A. perception

B. something that is cared about

C. negative effects

D. disruption of tasks

27) Negotiation can be defined as a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree upon _____.

A. the exchange rate for those goods and services

B. a model of the negotiation process for resolving differences

C. effective arbitrators for disputes

D. acceptable bargaining strategies for obtaining the goods and services

E. the monetary value of the exchanged items

28) _____ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a “fixed pie.”

A. Distributive

B. Reflective

C. Affective

D. Integrative

E. Conjunctive

29) Which of the following statements about leadership is true?

A. leaders are managers.

B. managers are leaders.

C. leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

D. Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively.

E. Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as or more important than formal influence.

30) Danielle wants to become a surgeon, not only because achieving this goal will give her self-respect and autonomy, but also because she wants a job with high status and recognition from others. Which of Maslow’s needs is Danielle trying to fill?

A. self-actualization

B. esteem

C. psychological

D. social

E. safety

31) _____ can be used to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly.

A. Selective evaluation

B. Multiple raters

C. Documenting with a journal

D. Due process

E. Focusing on subjective evaluations

32) Examples of off-the-job training include all of the following except _____.

A. classroom lectures

B. public seminars

C. Internet courses

D. videotapes

E. apprenticeship programs

33) Training employees how to be better listeners falls under which of the following training categories?

A. ethical skills

B. interpersonal skills

C. problem-solving skills

D. cultural skills

E. technical skills

34) Which type of skill training has become increasingly important in organizations?

A. financial

B. interpersonal

C. problem solving

D. social

E. technical

35) According to a recent survey, about ___ percent of employees working in the 1,000 largest U.S. corporations receive ethics training.

A. 10

B. 75

C. 50

D. 25

36) Organizational structure has six key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements?

A. centralization

B. formalization

C. work specialization

D. location of authority

E. departmentalization

37) Which of the following is not a primary force for change in organizations?

A. technology

B. social trends

C. decreasing skill sets

D. the nature of the workforce

E. economic shocks

38) The “realistic” personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations would be well suited for which of the following jobs?

A. painter

B. lawyer

C. mechanic

D. biologist

E. accountant

39) What term is used for the tendency of an individual to attribute his own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors?

A. fundamental attribution error

B. selective perception

C. consistency

D. stereotyping

E. self-serving bias

40) A task that is subdivided into many separate jobs is considered to have _____.

A. a high degree of departmentalization

B. a low degree of structure

C. a high degree of work specialization

D. a high degree of matrix structuring

E. a low degree of decentralization

41) Under exponential smoothing, if we want our forecast to be responsive to recent demand, the value of alpha should be:

A. large

B. zero

C. moderate

D. small

42) Which of the following would NOT be classified as a time-series technique?

A. simple moving average

B. regression model

C. box Jenkins technique

D. trend projections

E. exponential smoothing

43) According to David Maister, the most complex projects requiring innovation and creativity are called _________.

A. “procedures” projects

B. “grinding” projects

C. “brain surgery” projects

D. “gray hair” projects

44) Goldratt's rule of production scheduling include all but:

A. Do not balance the capacity - balance the flow

B. Utilization and activation of a resource is not the same thing

C. Priorities can be set only by examining the system's constraints

D. An hour saved at a non-bottleneck is a mirage

E. A process batch should be fixed both along its route and in time

45) If the system contains a bottleneck, the _______ is the best place for control. If there is no bottleneck, the __________ is the best place for control.

A. capacity-constrained resource, bottleneck

B. capacity-constrained resource, drum

C. none of these answers

D. bottleneck, capacity constrained resource

46) “Hard” capital rationing refers to the rationing __________.

A. imposed by external factors

B. imposed internally by the shareholders

C. always imposed by debt holders

D. always imposed by competitors

47) __________ says to look for opportunities to invest in positive-NPV projects in foreign markets or to develop derivatives or design arrangements that enable firms to cope better with the risks they face in their foreign operations.

A. The Principle of Risk-Return Trade-off

B. The Principle of Diversification

C. The Principle of Valuable Ideas

D. The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency

48) __________ says to recognize the value of hidden options in a situation, such as the foreign exchange options in some derivative instruments.

A. The Options Principle

B. The Principle of Comparative Advantage

C. The Time Value of Money Principle

D. The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions

49) Under capital rationing, given the choice among several equally attractive investments, the best tool to use is the __________.

A. Internal Rate of Return method

B. Payback method

C. Net Present Value method

D. Profitability Index method

50) An all-equity-financed firm would __________.

A. not pay any income taxes because interest would exactly offset its taxable income.

B. pay corporate income taxes because it would have interest expense.

C. pay corporate income taxes if its taxable income is positive

D. not pay corporate income taxes because it would have no interest expense.

51) __________ says to seek out investments that offer the greatest expected risk-adjusted real return.

A. The Principle of Incremental Benefits

B. The Signaling Principle

C. The Principle of Valuable Ideas

D. The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior

52) A checking account is __________.

A. a place to “collect” money between inflows and outflows

B. an account that acts like a reservoir

C. useful because you can add money in any amount

D. all of these

53) Due to asymmetric information, the market fears that a firm issuing securities will do so when the stock is _________.

A. undervalued

B. overvalued

C. being sold by insiders

D. caught up in a bear market

54) Which of the following statements is true?

A. The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency says to consider the possible ways to minimize the value lost to capital market imperfections, such as asymmetric taxes, asymmetric information, and transaction costs.

B. The Behavioral Principle suggests to look for opportunities to create value by issuing securities that are in short supply, perhaps resulting from changes in tax law.

C. The Signaling Principle says to consider any possible change in capital structure carefully, because financing transactions and capital structure changes convey information to outsiders and can be misunderstood.

D. all of these

55) Which of the following statements is true?

A. The Principle of Incremental Benefits says to consider the possible ways to minimize the value lost to capital market imperfections, such as asymmetric taxes, asymmetric information, and transaction costs.

B. The Principle of Valuable Ideas suggests to look for opportunities to create value by issuing securities that are in short supply, perhaps resulting from changes in tax law.

C. The Time Value of Money Principle advises to include any time-value-of-money tax benefits from capital structure choices.

D. all of these

56) __________ says to recognize the value of options contained in derivatives.

A. The Principle of Valuable Ideas

B. The Capital Market Efficiency Principle

C. The Principle of Comparative Advantage

D. The Options Principle

57) __________ says to use derivatives to pay others to take risks.

A. The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions

B. The Signaling Principle

C. The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior

D. The Principle of the Time Value of Money

58) The conversion price (for a convertible security) is usually adjusted __________.

A. for a new debt offering.

B. for stock splits.

C. for cash dividends.

D. all of these

59) The investment decision best addresses which of the following questions?

A. Should we buy new equipment?

B. Should debt be short-term?

C. Should we increase our advertising budget?

D. Should we borrow in a foreign currency?

60) Dimensions of risk include __________.

A. uncertainty about the future outcome

B. the impossibility of the same return

C. uncertainty about yesterday’s outcome

D. the certainty of a negative outcome

61) According to the Principle of Risk-Return Trade-Off, investors require a higher return to compensate for __________.

A. lack of diversification

B. less risk

C. greater risk

D. diversification

62) You do a study and find out that, on average, stock prices for firms decrease 3% for every 5% decrease in inside ownership. You are watching the nightly business report and find out that Magic Tape’s stock has announced that insiders have sold 10% of their holdings. You are concerned because you own 1,000 shares of Magic Tape and it had closed the day before unchanged at $30 per share. If markets are at least semi-strong form efficient, what would you expect?

A. You would expect Magic Tape to close at $28 the day of the announcement.

B. You would lose $1,800.

C. You would lose $2.00 per share

D. You would lose $4,000.

63) Which of the following is not an advantage of going public?

A. Going public enables a firm to raise additional capital.

B. Going public generally brings a lower price in the public market than in the venture capital or private placement markets.

C. Going public achieves liquidity and diversification for current shareholders

D. Going public gives existing shareholders a chance to sell portions of their shares as part of the IPO giving them a cash return on their investment and allows them to diversify their investment portfolios.

64) Which of the following is not an advantage of going public?

A. Going public makes the common stock negotiable and creates a visible market value.

B. Going public increase the firm's equity financing flexibility.

C. Going public makes it easier for a firm to acquire other firms in exchange for shares of its stock.

D. Going public makes securities worth more because of their decreased liquidity.

65) Undertaker Corporation has a joint process that produces three products: P, G, and A. Each product may be sold at split-off or processed further and then sold. Joint processing costs for a year amount to $25,000. Other relevant data are as follows:

Product Sales Value at Split-off Processing Costs after Split-off Sales Value at Completion

P $62,000 $5,000 $88,000

G 12,500 6,500 19,000

A 9,400 5,000 12,000

Product G _____.

A. should be processed further to increase profits by $6,500.

B. should be processed further to increase profits by $19,000.

C. an be processed further or sold at split off; there is no difference in profit.

D. should be sold at split off since processing further would only reduce profits by $6,500.

66) Baden Company manufactures a product with a unit variable cost of $50 and a unit sales price of $88. Fixed manufacturing costs were $240,000 when 10,000 units were produced and sold. The company has a one-time opportunity to sell an additional 1,000 units at $70 each in a foreign market which would not affect its present sales. If the company has sufficient capacity to produce the additional units, acceptance of the special order would affect net income as follows:

A. Income would decrease by $4,000.

B. Income would increase by $70,000.

C. Income would increase by $20,000

D. Income would increase by $4,000.

67) Transfer-pricing systems exist to _____.

A. encourage managers to purchase goods and services internally

B. maximize worldwide taxes, duties, and tariffs

C. evaluate segment performance

D. all of these answers are correct

68) Which one of the following managerial accounting approaches attempts to allocate manufacturing overhead in a more meaningful fashion?

A. Theory of constraints.

B. Activity-based costing.

C. Total-quality management

D. Just-in-time inventory.

69) The opportunity cost of an alternate course of action that is relevant to a make-or-buy decision is

A. subtracted from the "Make" costs.

B. Added to the "Make" costs.

C. added to the "Buy" costs.

D. none of these

70) Which of the following does not appear as a separate section on the cash budget?

A. Cash receipts

B. Capital expenditures

C. Financing

D. Cash disbursements

71) Important factors considered by sales forecasters include all of the following except _____.

A. past patterns of sales

B. the desired level of sales

C. marketing research studies

D. competitors’ activities

72) Effectiveness is indicated by _____.

A. sales-activity variances

B. all of these answers are correct

C. static-budget variances

D. flexible-budget variances

73) Beginning cash balance plus total receipts

A. equals ending cash balance.

B. is the excess of available cash over disbursements.

C. must equal total disbursements.

D. equals total available cash.

74) A cost which remains constant per unit at various levels of activity is a

A. variable cost.

B. manufacturing cost.

C. fixed cost.

D. mixed cost.

75) A variable cost is a cost that

A. varies per unit at every level of activity .

B. may or may not be incurred, depending on management's discretion.

C. occurs at various times during the year.

D. varies in total in proportion to changes in the level of activity.

76) A company has total fixed costs of $120,000 and a contribution margin ratio of 20%. The total sales necessary to break even are

A. $480,000.

B. $144,000.

C. $600,000.

D. $150,000.

77) For an activity base to be useful in cost behavior analysis,

A. the activity should always be stated in dollars.

B. the activity level should be constant over a period of time.

C. there should be a correlation between changes in the level of activity and changes in costs.

D. the activity should always be stated in terms of units.

78) Identify which statement about "currently attainable standards" is NOT true.

A. They allow for normal spoilage and nonproductive time.

B. Employees usually view these goals as reasonable.

C. Because they allow for waste, they usually result in favorable variances.

D. They represent projections of what will probably be attained.

79) Joint costs are incurred _____.

A. before the production process is started

B. after the process-further decision

C. before individual products are separately identified

D. after the split-off point but before the process-further decision

80) The last step in activity-based costing is to

A. assign manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products.

B. identify the cost driver that has a strong correlation to the activity cost pool.

C. compute the activity-based overhead rate per cost driver.

D. identify and classify the major activities involved in the manufacture of specific products.

81) In a process cost system,

A. a Work in Process account is maintained for each product.

B. one Work in Process account is maintained for all the processes, similar to a job order cost system.

C. a materials requisition must identify the job on which the materials will be used.

D. a Work in Process account is maintained for each process.

82) The proprietorship form of business organization

A. must have at least two owners in most states.

B. is classified as a separate legal entity.

C. generally receives favorable tax treatment relative to a corporation.

D. combines the records of the business with the personal records of the owner.

83) Identify which one of the following statements is false.

A. Owners’ equity solely represents the profits made by an organization in the current period.

B. Assets are economic resources that are expected to benefit future cash inflows or reduce future cash outflows.

C. Liabilities are economic obligations or claims against the assets of an organization by outsiders.

D. Assets must always equal the sum of liabilities and owners’ equity.

84) A local retail shop has been operating as a sole proprietorship. The business is growing and now the owner wants to incorporate. Which of the following is not a reason for this owner to incorporate?

A. ability to raise capital for expansion

B. desire to limit the owner’s personal liability

C. the prestige of operating as a corporation

D. the ease in transferring shares of the corporation’s stock

85) _____ are sections of the balance sheet.

A. Revenues, assets, and liabilities

B. Assets, liabilities, and expenses

C. Expenses, revenues, and owners’ equity

D. Assets, liabilities, and owners’ equity

86) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with ___________, after the passage of NAFTA, _________ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

A. Canada, Venezuela

B. Canada, Mexico

C. Mexico, Canada

D. Mexico, Venezuela

E. Great Britain, Paraguay

87) Diversity training programs are generally intended to provide a vehicle for _____.

A. focusing on individual differences

B. increasing awareness and examining stereotypes

C. eliminating group learning

D. socializing otherwise unmanageable employees

E. balancing work/life conflicts

88) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

A. Canada

B. Japan

C. Mexico

D. Ecuador

E. China

89) Which of the following is not one of the Caux Round Table Principles for International Business?

A. Support for Multilateral Trade.

B. Avoidance of Illicit Operations.

C. Promotion of Multiculturalism.

D. Responsibility of Business Beyond Shareholders Toward Stakeholders.

E. Respect for the Environment.

90) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about ___ an hour in China, compared to ____ dollars in the United States.

A. About $2; about 15

B. Less than $1; about 15

C. Less than $1; about 25

D. Less than $1; about 40

E. $2; about 25

91) Which of the following is correct about litigating commercial disputes?

A. Commercial disputes, because of their specialized nature, are first heard at the appellate court level.

B. Nearly all states have specialized trial courts that hear commercial disputes.

C. A few states have established specialized trial courts for commercial disputes.

D. In all states, commercial disputes must be heard in a limited-jurisdiction court.

E. Businesses generally dislike the concept of specialized trail courts for commercial disputes because the large numbers of consumers who sue businesses in these courts have led the judges to become generally biased against business.

92) Which article of the United States Constitution deals with the judicial power of the federal government?

A. Article II.

B. Article I.

C. Article III.

D. Article V.

E. Article IV.

93) When an economist says that the demand for a product has increased, this means that:

A. quantity demanded is greater at each possible price.

B. firms make less of the product available for sale.

C. consumers respond to a lower price by buying more.

D. the demand curve becomes steeper.

94) When movie ticket prices increase, families tend to spend less time watching movies and more time at home watching videos instead. This best reflects:

A. diminishing marginal utility.

B. the income effect.

C. the rationing function of markets.

D. the substitution effect.

95) The costs of delivering products in the _____ channel are much higher than delivering products in the _____ channel.

A. digital, e-commerce

B. e-commerce, digital

C. digital, physical

D. physical, digital

E. physical, financial

96) Which of the following is NOT a function of functional area information systems?

A. supports the managerial tasks of planning, organizing, and controlling operations

B. provides information mainly in the form of reports

C. provides information to managers in the functional areas

D. provides data from business events to the corporate database

E. provides analysis capabilities to middle level managers and staff

97) The Global, Web-Based Platform enables individuals to do which of the following?

A. access information, services, and entertainment

B. exchange knowledge

C. connect, compute, communicate, collaborate, and compete everywhere and all the time

D. produce and sell goods and services

E. all of these answers are correct

98) Companies normally budget marketing research at ________ percent of company sales.

A. 2 to 3

B. 4

C. 1 to 2

D. 6.5

E. 10 to 12

99) The assignment of numbers or symbols to a property of objects according to value or magnitude is called _____.

A. Scaling

B. Weighing

C. Measurement

D. Sampling

E. Coding

100) A ________ has been defined as being a coordinated collection of data, systems, tools, and techniques with supporting software and hardware by which an organization gathers and interprets relevant information from business and environment and turns it into a basis for marketing action.

A. marketing intelligence system

B. marketing decision support system

C. marketing information system

D. marketing research system

E. database management system

STR581 Final 3.doc

1) 3M, Hewlett-Packard, Lego, and other companies use the ________ to manage the innovation process.

A. joint- venture system

B. skunk works

C. venture team

D. new product “team”

E. stage-gate system

2) ________ is the difference between the prospective customer’s evaluation of all the benefits and all the costs of an offering and the perceived alternatives.

A. Failure avoidance rate

B. Competitors market share rate

C. Customer perceived value

D. Report rating

E. Perceived usefulness

3) A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads competitors’ published reports and stockholder information, the company is using ________ to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence.

A. intermediaries

B. sales force surrogates

C. external networks

D. advisory panels

E. customer feedback systems

4) Most established companies focus on ________ when it comes to innovation.

A. continuous innovation

B. incremental innovation

C. everyday innovation

D. demand innovation

E. competitive innovation

5) A(n) ________ is any good, service, or idea that is perceived by someone as new.

A. innovation

B. product

C. new idea

D. creative product

6) Total customer satisfaction is the general feeling of pleasure or disappointment that results from comparing perceived performance to expectations. To achieve total customer satisfaction, organizations need to_____________.

A. Spend more money

B. Develop marketing campaigns

C. Manage customer experiences

D. Lower expectations

E. Lower prices

7) A ________ is a set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about developments in the marketing environment.

A. marketing information system

B. marketing research system

C. product management system

D. marketing intelligence system

E. vertical system

8) Marketers usually identify niches by ________.

A. conducting VALS tests

B. dividing a segment into subsegments

C. allowing consumers to gravitate toward product brands

D. examining the demographics section of The Handbook of Marketing

E. producing products that can be used in a variety of ways

9) In ________ marketing, the seller engages in the mass production, mass distribution, and mass promotion of one product for all buyers.

A. mass

B. group

C. general

D. segmented

E. differentiated

10) Particularly when shopping for ego-sensitive products such as perfumes and expensive cars, many consumers use price as an indicator of ________.

A. ability

B. capability

C. status

D. size

E. quality

11) A marketing manager needs to know the cost of the research project before approving it. During which step in the marketing research process would such a consideration most likely take place?

A. Step 1—drafting the research objectives.

B. Step 2—develop the research plan.

C. Step 1—defining the problem.

D. Step 3—information collection

E. Step 1—creating decision alternatives.

12) Which of the following is generally considered to be the last step in the marketing research process?

A. Control the environment.

B. Make the decision.

C. Present the findings.

D. Draft the report

E. Analyze the information.

13) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific marketing situation facing the company.

A. Marketing research

B. Demographics

C. Marketing intelligence

D. Marketing management

E. MIS (marketing information system)

14) Following the ________ approach to target market selection encompasses a strong knowledge of the segment’s needs, a strong market presence, and operating economies through specializing in production, distribution, and promotion.

A. product specialization

B. market specialization

C. single-segment concentration

D. full market coverage

E. selective specialization

15) The marketing communications mix consists of six major modes of communications. Which of the following is NOT one of these modes?

A. Sales promotions

B. Packaging

C. Personal selling

D. Advertising

E. Direct marketing

16) The chief disadvantage to a firm that decides to follow a product specialization strategy in selecting target markets is ________.

A. the product may be supplanted by an entirely new technology

B. competitors can easily copy any new product introductions

C. no synergy exists

D. e-commerce becomes difficult for the company

E. logistics can become a nightmare

17) Marketing communications can contribute to brand equity by establishing the brand in memory and to________ (in)a brand image.

A. communicate

B. craft

C. create interest

D. create demand

18) “Power prices” use price as a key strategic tool. These “power prices” have discovered the highly ________ effect of price on the bottom line.

A. leveraged

B. soothing

C. dramatic

D. abrasive

E. direct

19) Some intermediaries use the following: strategic planning, advanced information systems, sophisticated marketing tools, measure performance on a return-on-investment basis, segment their markets, improve their target marketing and positioning, and ________.

A. aggressively pursue take over strategies

B. aggressively pursue market expansion and diversification strategies

C. contend with dwindling customer bases

D. aggressively “squeeze” manufacturer margins

E. dominant the manufacturers they do business with

20) Major retailer types include the following EXCEPT ________.

A. catalog showroom

B. superstore

C. specialty store

D. discount store

E. the Internet

21) ________ communicates a company’s intended value positioning of its product or brand to the market.

A. Place

B. Physical evidence

C. Packaging

D. Price

E. Promotion

22) Price has operated as the major determinant of buyer choice among poorer nations, among poorer groups, and with ________ products.

A. over the Internet

B. commodity-type

C. identical

D. similar

23) New-to-the- world products are ________.

A. new products that supplement established product lines (package sizes, flavors, and so on)

B. existing products that are targeted to new markets or market segments

C. new products that create an entirely new market

D. new products that allow a company to enter an established market for the first time

E. new products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value and replace existing products

24) _____ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a “fixed pie.”

A. Reflective

B. Distributive

C. Affective

D. Conjunctive

E. Integrative

25) The two general approaches to bargaining are known as ________.

A. distributive and integrative

B. emotional and rational.

C. formal and informal.

D. legal and restrictive

E. affective and reflective

26) Leadership is best defined as _____.

A. implementing the vision and strategy provided by management

B. the ability to influence a group in goal achievement

C. coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems

D. not a relevant variable in modern organizations

E. keeping order and consistency in the midst of change

27) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?

A. A work group consists of 3 or more people who take on self-supervising responsibilities.

B. The performance of a work group is generally greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members.

C. A work group consists of 3 or more people from across departmental or functional lines.

D. A work group is a group comprised of 10 or more people

E. A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort.

28) Which of the following statements about leadership is true?

A. managers are leaders.

B. leaders are managers.

C. leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

D. Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as or more important than formal influence.

E. Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively.

29) Negotiation can be defined as a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree upon _____.

A. a model of the negotiation process for resolving differences

B. the exchange rate for those goods and services

C. effective arbitrators for disputes

D. the monetary value of the exchanged items

E. acceptable bargaining strategies for obtaining the goods and services

30) If no one is aware of conflict, it is generally agreed that _____.

A. no conflict exists

B. employee-employer relations will be good

C. conflict is inevitable

D. conflict is psychologically driven as opposed to physically manifest

E. conflict is subversive

31) Training employees how to be better listeners falls under which of the following training categories?

A. problem-solving skills

B. ethical skills

C. interpersonal skills

D. cultural skills

E. technical skills

32) _____ can be used to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly.

A. Multiple raters

B. Documenting with a journal

C. Due process

D. Selective evaluation

E. Focusing on subjective evaluations

33) Which of the following is NOT a typical written test used in organizations?

A. personality

B. aptitude

C. integrity

D. intelligence

E. work sample

34) Examples of off-the-job training include all of the following except _____.

A. Internet courses

B. public seminars

C. apprenticeship programs

D. classroom lectures

E. videotapes

35) Which of the following has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that require cognitive complexity?

A. work sampling

B. aptitude tests

C. integrity evaluations

D. intelligence tests

E. behavioral assessment

36) Which of the following is not a primary force for change in organizations?

A. decreasing skill sets

B. social trends

C. economic shocks

D. technology

E. the nature of the workforce

37) The “realistic” personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations would be well suited for which of the following jobs?

A. mechanic

B. lawyer

C. accountant

D. painter

E. biologist

38) _____ developed a Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire that contains 160 occupational titles.

A. Hofstede

B. Herzberg

C. Holland

D. Maslow

E. Surber

39) Investors bragged about their investing expertise during the stock market rally between 1996 and early 2000, then blamed analysts, brokers, and the Federal Reserve when the market imploded in 2000. These investors were most probably guilty of what?

A. distinctiveness

B. selective perception

C. the halo effect

D. self-serving bias

E. fundamental attribution error

40) What term is used for the tendency of an individual to attribute his own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors?

A. selective perception

B. stereotyping

C. consistency

D. self-serving bias

E. fundamental attribution error

41) Operations stage toolkit for the Data Analysis and Solution Development phase include(s):

I. SPC tools II. Bottleneck analysis III. Computer simulation IV. Balanced scoreboard

A. II, III, and IV

B. I, II, III, and IV

C. I, II, III

D. II and III

E. I and II

42) The phenomenon of magnification of demand variability as we move from the customer to the producer in the supply-chain is referred to as the:

A. price deflator

B. Just-in-time approach

C. bullwhip effect

D. Elasticity of demand

E. postponement effect

43) According to David Maister, the most complex projects requiring innovation and creativity are called _________.

A. “brain surgery” projects

B. “grinding” projects

C. “gray hair” projects

D. “procedures” projects

44) Which of the following according to Goldratt is not a component of production cycle time?

A. queue time

B. maintenance time

C. wait time

D. process time

E. setup time

45) Which of the following would NOT be classified as a time-series technique?

A. regression model

B. trend projections

C. box Jenkins technique

D. exponential smoothing

E. simple moving average

46) Which of the following statements is true?

A. The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency says to consider the possible ways to minimize the value lost to capital market imperfections, such as asymmetric taxes, asymmetric information, and transaction costs.

B. The Behavioral Principle suggests to look for opportunities to create value by issuing securities that are in short supply, perhaps resulting from changes in tax law.

C. The Signaling Principle says to consider any possible change in capital structure carefully, because financing transactions and capital structure changes convey information to outsiders and can be misunderstood.

D. all of these

47) “Hard” capital rationing refers to the rationing __________.

A. always imposed by competitors

B. always imposed by debt holders

C. imposed internally by the shareholders

D. imposed by external factors

48) Due to asymmetric information, the market fears that a firm issuing securities will do so when the stock is _________.

A. caught up in a bear market

B. undervalued

C. being sold by insiders

D. overvalued

49) An investor's risky portfolio is made up of individual stocks. Which of the following statements about this portfolio is true?

A. An investor cannot change the risk of this portfolio by her choice about personal leverage (lending or borrowing).

B. Each stock in the portfolio has its own beta.

C. Each stock in the portfolio will have a beta greater than one.

D. Selling any stock in this portfolio will lower the beta of the portfolio.

50) __________ says to look for opportunities to invest in positive-NPV projects in foreign markets or to develop derivatives or design arrangements that enable firms to cope better with the risks they face in their foreign operations.

A. The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency

B. The Principle of Risk-Return Trade-off

C. The Principle of Valuable Ideas

D. The Principle of Diversification

51) __________ says to seek out investments that offer the greatest expected risk-adjusted real return.

A. The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior

B. The Principle of Incremental Benefits

C. The Principle of Valuable Ideas

D. The Signaling Principle

52) __________ says to recognize the value of hidden options in a situation, such as the foreign exchange options in some derivative instruments.

A. The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions

B. The Options Principle

C. The Time Value of Money Principle

D. The Principle of Comparative Advantage

53) Which of the following statements is true?

A. The Principle of Incremental Benefits says to consider the possible ways to minimize the value lost to capital market imperfections, such as asymmetric taxes, asymmetric information, and transaction costs.

B. The Principle of Valuable Ideas suggests to look for opportunities to create value by issuing securities that are in short supply, perhaps resulting from changes in tax law.

C. The Time Value of Money Principle advises to include any time-value-of-money tax benefits from capital structure choices.

D. all of these

54) A checking account is __________.

A. a place to “collect” money between inflows and outflows

B. an account that acts like a reservoir

C. useful because you can add money in any amount

D. all of these

55) Under capital rationing, given the choice among several equally attractive investments, the best tool to use is the __________.

A. Profitability Index method

B. Internal Rate of Return method

C. Net Present Value method

D. Payback method

56) __________ says to recognize the value of options contained in derivatives.

A. The Options Principle

B. The Capital Market Efficiency Principle

C. The Principle of Comparative Advantage

D. The Principle of Valuable Ideas

57) The managerial decision best addresses which of the following questions?

A. How fast should we grow?

B. What size of firm do we want?

C. How should we compensate our managers?

D. all of these

58) __________ says that if you transfer risk to another party, you must offer a return that fully compensates for the amount of risk transferred.

A. The Principle of Incremental Benefits

B. The Risk-Return Trade-Off Principle

C. The Principle of Self-Interested

D. The Behavioral Principle

59) According to the Principle of Risk-Return Trade-Off, investors require a higher return to compensate for __________.

A. less risk

B. diversification

C. greater risk

D. lack of diversification

60) Which of these investments would you expect to have the highest rate of return for the next 20 years?

A. intermediate-term U.S. government bonds

B. long-term corporate bonds

C. anybody’s guess

D. U.S. Treasury bills

61) Dimensions of risk include __________.

A. the impossibility of the same return

B. the certainty of a negative outcome

C. uncertainty about yesterday’s outcome

D. uncertainty about the future outcome

62) You work for ABC, Inc. in the finance department. You own shares in ABC, Inc. that are selling at $20 per share on the NYSE. You just found out they will have a new stock offering. You just found out they will publicly announce a new stock offering. The costs from the offering will be 10% of the new offering. The new offering will increase the number of outstanding share by 30%. There are currently 20,000,000 shares of ABC outstanding. Once the announcement is made public, what might be the expected impact from transaction (or issuance) costs on each share you own?

A. You will lose 2% of the value of the shares you own.

B. You will lose 3% of the value of the share you own.

C. There will be no costs because markets are perfect when it comes to new stock offerings.

D. There will be no costs because there is no information asymmetry present.

63) Which of the following is (are) true?

A. The Principle of Risk-Return Trade-Off states that differences between financial assets are measured primarily in terms of risk and return.

B. The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency states that people apply the Principles of Self-Interested Behavior, Two-Sided Transactions, and Signaling to an environment characterized by similar financial assets, low transaction costs, and intense competition leads to capital market efficiency.

C. The Principle of Valuable Ideas states that new ideas can provide value when first introduced, even in an efficient capital market.

D. all of these answers are correct.

64) You do a study and find out that, on average, stock prices for firms decrease 3% for every 5% decrease in inside ownership. You are watching the nightly business report and find out that Magic Tape’s stock has announced that insiders have sold 10% of their holdings. You are concerned because you own 1,000 shares of Magic Tape and it had closed the day before unchanged at $30 per share. If markets are at least semi-strong form efficient, what would you expect?

A. You would lose $1,800.

B. You would lose $2.00 per share

C. You would expect Magic Tape to close at $28 the day of the announcement.

D. You would lose $4,000.

65) Incremental analysis would not be appropriate for

A. elimination of an unprofitable segment.

B. Analysis of manufacturing variances

C. a make or buy decision.

D. an allocation of limited resource decision.

66) Baden Company manufactures a product with a unit variable cost of $50 and a unit sales price of $88. Fixed manufacturing costs were $240,000 when 10,000 units were produced and sold. The company has a one-time opportunity to sell an additional 1,000 units at $70 each in a foreign market which would not affect its present sales. If the company has sufficient capacity to produce the additional units, acceptance of the special order would affect net income as follows:

A. Income would increase by $70,000.

B. Income would increase by $20,000

C. Income would decrease by $4,000.

D. Income would increase by $4,000.

67) Which one of the following characteristics would likely be associated with a just-in-time inventory method?

A. Minimal finished goods inventory on hand.

B. An understanding with customers that they may come to the showroom and select from inventory on hand.

C. Ending inventory of work in process that would allow several production runs.

D. A backlog of inventory orders not yet shipped.

68) For what purpose is the theory of constraints used?

A. To identify and manage constraints that bottle-neck operations.

B. To reduce inventory levels

C. To reduce product defects.

D. To balance performance measurement.

69) Which decision will involve no incremental revenues?

A. Additional processing decision

B. Make or buy decision

C. Drop a product line

D. Accept a special order

70) Important factors considered by sales forecasters include all of the following except _____.

A. the desired level of sales

B. past patterns of sales

C. marketing research studies

D. competitors’ activities

71) _____ is an important factor considered by sales forecasters.

A. All of these answers are correct

B. Past patterns of sales

C. Estimates made by the sales force

D. General economic conditions

72) A _____ gives the expected sales under a given set of conditions.

A. sales forecast

B. sales prediction

C. sales budget

D. budget forecast

73) Which of the following does not appear as a separate section on the cash budget?

A. Financing

B. Cash receipts

C. Cash disbursements

D. Capital expenditures

74) A variable cost is a cost that

A. may or may not be incurred, depending on management's discretion.

B. varies per unit at every level of activity.

C. occurs at various times during the year.

D. varies in total in proportion to changes in the level of activity.

75) A company has total fixed costs of $120,000 and a contribution margin ratio of 20%. The total sales necessary to break even are

A. $144,000.

B. $600,000.

C. $480,000.

D. $150,000.

76) A cost which remains constant per unit at various levels of activity is a

A. manufacturing cost.

B. fixed cost.

C. variable cost.

D. mixed cost.

77) How much sales are required to earn a target net income of $128,000 if total fixed costs are $160,000 and the contribution margin ratio is 40%?

A. $320,000.

B. $648,000.

C. $400,000.

D. $720,000.

78) An absorption-costing income statement separates cost into the major categories of_____.

A. all of these answers are correct

B. product and period

C. manufacturing and nonmanufacturing

D. inventoriable and noninventoriable

79) The last step in activity-based costing is to

A. identify the cost driver that has a strong correlation to the activity cost pool.

B. compute the activity-based overhead rate per cost driver.

C. assign manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products.

D. identify and classify the major activities involved in the manufacture of specific products.

80) The first step in activity-based costing is to

A. assign manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products.

B. compute the activity-based overhead rate per cost driver.

C. identify and classify the major activities involved in the manufacture of specific products.

D. identify the cost driver that has a strong correlation to the activity cost pool.

81) There is no difference between variable-costing and absorption-costing income if there is no_____.

A. variable overhead cost

B. change in inventory level

C. beginning inventory

D. ending inventory

82) _____ are profitability ratios.

A. Price earnings and current ratio

B. Earnings per share and dividend yield

C. Gross profit rate and return on sales

D. Dividend payout and rate of return in invested capital

83) Which statements describe the principal reason(s) why investors and creditors use financial statement analysis? 1. To assess the risks associated with expected returns 2. To establish recommended dividend and interest payments 3. To evaluate top and middle level management 4. To predict the amount of expected returns

A. 1, 2, and 3

B. 3 and 4

C. 1 and 2

D. 1 and 4

84) _____ are sections of the balance sheet.

A. Assets, liabilities, and owners’ equity

B. Expenses, revenues, and owners’ equity

C. Revenues, assets, and liabilities

D. Assets, liabilities, and expenses

85) A local retail shop has been operating as a sole proprietorship. The business is growing and now the owner wants to incorporate. Which of the following is not a reason for this owner to incorporate?

A. the ease in transferring shares of the corporation’s stock

B. the prestige of operating as a corporation

C. ability to raise capital for expansion

D. desire to limit the owner’s personal liability

86) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with ___________, after the passage of NAFTA, _________ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

A. Canada, Venezuela

B. Canada, Mexico

C. Mexico, Canada

D. Mexico, Venezuela

E. Great Britain, Paraguay

87) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about ___ an hour in China, compared to ____ dollars in the United States.

A. Less than $1; about 40

B. $2; about 25

C. About $2; about 15

D. Less than $1; about 15

E. Less than $1; about 25

88) Which of the following is not one of the Caux Round Table Principles for International Business?

A. Responsibility of Business Beyond Shareholders Toward Stakeholders.

B. Support for Multilateral Trade.

C. Promotion of Multiculturalism.

D. Respect for the Environment.

E. Avoidance of Illicit Operations.

89) Which social responsibility theory has been advocated by Novel Prizewinning economist Milton Friedman?

A. Corporate social audit

B. Moral minimum

C. Stakeholder interest

D. Corporate citizenship

E. Maximizing profits

90) Diversity training programs are generally intended to provide a vehicle for _____.

A. socializing otherwise unmanageable employees

B. focusing on individual differences

C. eliminating group learning

D. balancing work/life conflicts

E. increasing awareness and examining stereotypes

92) Which of the following is correct about litigating commercial disputes?

A. In all states, commercial disputes must be heard in a limited-jurisdiction court.

B. Commercial disputes, because of their specialized nature, are first heard at the appellate court level.

C. A few states have established specialized trial courts for commercial disputes.

D. Businesses generally dislike the concept of specialized trail courts for commercial disputes because the large numbers of consumers who sue businesses in these courts have led the judges to become generally biased against business.

E. Nearly all states have specialized trial courts that hear commercial disputes.

93) When an economist says that the demand for a product has increased, this means that:

A. the demand curve becomes steeper.

B. quantity demanded is greater at each possible price.

C. consumers respond to a lower price by buying more.

D. firms make less of the product available for sale.

94) If consumer incomes increase, the demand for product Y will _____________.

A. shift to the right if Y is a normal good

B. necessarily remain unchanged

C. shift to the right if Y is a complementary good

95) The force behind globalization in _____ was the amount of muscle, horsepower, wind power, or steam power that a country could deploy.

A. None of these

B. Globalization 2.0

C. Globalization 3.0

D. Globalization 1.0

96) The Global, Web-Based Platform enables individuals to do which of the following?

A. all of these answers are correct

B. exchange knowledge

C. produce and sell goods and services

D. connect, compute, communicate, collaborate, and compete everywhere and all the time

E. access information, services, and entertainment

97) _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information technologies.

A. business environment

B. nationalization

C. globalization

D. regionalization

98) Which research design listed below is most appropriate for establishing causality?

A. Individual depth interview

B. Behavioral observation

C. Focus group

D. Survey

E. Experiment

99) Which of the following statements is true concerning the applicability of attitudes in understanding behavior?

A. Behavior is affected equally by those attitudes formed via social learning and those formed via behavioral learning

B. A single, global measure of attitude is necessary to predict behavior

C. General attitudes are the best predictors of behavior

D. Cognitive attitudes influence behavior better than affective-based attitudes

100) The quartile deviation is:

A. Based on the middle 50 percent of the observations.

B. Appropriate only for symmetric distributions.

C. The square root of the variance.

D. In squared units of the original data.

STR581 Final 4.doc

1) Total customer satisfaction is the general feeling of pleasure or disappointment that results from comparing perceived performance to expectations. To achieve total customer satisfaction, organizations need to_____________.

A. image1.wmf Lower prices

B. image2.wmf Spend more money

C. image3.wmf Lower expectations

D. image4.wmf Develop marketing campaigns

E. image5.wmf Manage customer experiences

2) ________ consists of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers.

A. image6.wmf A marketing database

B. image7.wmf A marketing research system

C. image8.wmf A promotional campaign

D. image9.wmf A marketing information system

E. image10.wmf A marketing intelligence system

3) A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads competitors’ published reports and stockholder information, the company is using ________ to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence.

A. image11.wmf customer feedback systems

B. image12.wmf intermediaries

C. image13.wmf advisory panels

D. image14.wmf sales force surrogates

E. image15.wmf external networks

4) A ________ is a set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about developments in the marketing environment.

A. image16.wmf vertical system

B. image17.wmf marketing information system

C. image18.wmf marketing intelligence system

D. image19.wmf marketing research system

E. image20.wmf product management system

5) A(n) ________ is any good, service, or idea that is perceived by someone as new.

A. image21.wmf creative product

B. image22.wmf product

C. image23.wmf new idea

D. image24.wmf innovation

6) Most established companies focus on ________ when it comes to innovation.

A. image25.wmf competitive innovation

B. image26.wmf continuous innovation

C. image27.wmf demand innovation

D. image28.wmf incremental innovation

E. image29.wmf everyday innovation

7) The value proposition consists of a cluster of benefits the company promises to deliver; it is

A. image30.wmf business processes

B. image31.wmf customer experience with the company

C. image32.wmf customer expectations

D. image33.wmf Customer loyalty to the company

E. image34.wmf total customer satisfaction

8) In ________ marketing, the seller engages in the mass production, mass distribution, and mass promotion of one product for all buyers.

A. image35.wmf differentiated

B. image36.wmf mass

C. image37.wmf segmented

D. image38.wmf group

E. image39.wmf general

9) A firm has to consider many factors in setting its pricing policy. We list these as a six-step process. Which of the following is NOT one of these steps?

A. image40.wmf Selecting a pricing method.

B. image41.wmf Selecting the final price.

C. image42.wmf Selecting the pricing objective.

D. image43.wmf Researching reference prices in the target market.

E. image44.wmf Determining demand.

10) ________ is the result of a concentrated effort by designers, engineers, and purchasing agents to reduce the product’s overall costs.

A. image45.wmf Experience curve

B. image46.wmf Least cost producer

C. image47.wmf Target costing

D. image48.wmf Learning curve

11) Which of the following types of marketing research firms would best be described as one that gathers consumer and trade information which they sell for a fee (e.g., Nielsen Media Research)?

A. image49.wmf Non-profit marketing research firms

B. image50.wmf General-line marketing research firms

C. image51.wmf Syndicated-service research firms

D. image52.wmf Specialty-line marketing research firms

E. image53.wmf Custom marketing research firms

12) With respect to the sampling plan, three decisions must be made. The decisions are: the sampling unit—who is to be surveyed? Sample size—how many people should be surveyed? And ________.

A. image54.wmf sample supervisor—who will lead the sampling effort?

B. image55.wmf sampling procedure—how should the respondents be chosen?

C. image56.wmf surveyor skill—who will do the surveying?

D. image57.wmf sample security—how to protect the sample data?

E. image58.wmf sample cost—how much does sampling cost?

13) A marketing manager needs to know the cost of the research project before approving it. During which step in the marketing research process would such a consideration most likely take place?

A. image59.wmf Step 3—information collection

B. image60.wmf Step 2—develop the research plan.

C. image61.wmf Step 1—creating decision alternatives.

D. image62.wmf Step 1—drafting the research objectives.

E. image63.wmf Step 1—defining the problem.

14) To reach Generation Y, rock band Foo Fighters created a digital street team that sends targeted e-mail messages to members who “get the latest news, exclusive audio/video sneak previews, tons of chances to win great Foo Fighters prizes, and become part of the Foo Fighters Family.” Which of the following techniques for reaching Generation Y are the Foo Fighters using?

A. image64.wmf Online buzz

B. image65.wmf Computer games

C. image66.wmf Unconventional sports

D. image67.wmf Cool events

E. image68.wmf Student ambassadors

15) A company can add new products through acquisition or development. The acquisition route can take three forms. The company can buy other companies, it can acquire patents from other companies, or it can buy a ________ or _________ from another company.

A. image69.wmf franchise/acquire rights

B. image70.wmf franchise/co-brand

C. image71.wmf license/receive permission

D. image72.wmf license/franchise

16) The chief disadvantage to a firm that decides to follow a product specialization strategy in selecting target markets is ________.

A. image73.wmf e-commerce becomes difficult for the company

B. image74.wmf competitors can easily copy any new product introductions

C. image75.wmf logistics can become a nightmare

D. image76.wmf the product may be supplanted by an entirely new technology

E. image77.wmf no synergy exists

17) “Power prices” use price as a key strategic tool. These “power prices” have discovered the highly ________ effect of price on the bottom line.

A. image78.wmf soothing

B. image79.wmf direct

C. image80.wmf abrasive

D. image81.wmf leveraged

E. image82.wmf dramatic

18) Following the ________ approach to target market selection encompasses a strong knowledge of the segment’s needs, a strong market presence, and operating economies through specializing in production, distribution, and promotion.

A. image83.wmf full market coverage

B. image84.wmf product specialization

C. image85.wmf selective specialization

D. image86.wmf single-segment concentration

E. image87.wmf market specialization

19) Major retailer types include the following EXCEPT ________.

A. image88.wmf superstore

B. image89.wmf catalog showroom

C. image90.wmf discount store

D. image91.wmf specialty store

E. image92.wmf the Internet

20) ________ communicates a company’s intended value positioning of its product or brand to the market.

A. image93.wmf Physical evidence

B. image94.wmf Place

C. image95.wmf Price

D. image96.wmf Packaging

E. image97.wmf Promotion

21) Price has operated as the major determinant of buyer choice among poorer nations, among poorer groups, and with ________ products.

A. image98.wmf commodity-type

B. image99.wmf over the Internet

C. image100.wmf similar

D. image101.wmf identical

22) The marketing communications mix consists of six major modes of communications. Which of the following is NOT one of these modes?

A. image102.wmf Advertising

B. image103.wmf Sales promotions

C. image104.wmf Direct marketing

D. image105.wmf Personal selling

E. image106.wmf Packaging

23) Some intermediaries use the following: strategic planning, advanced information systems, sophisticated marketing tools, measure performance on a return-on-investment basis, segment their markets, improve their target marketing and positioning, and ________.

A. image107.wmf aggressively pursue market expansion and diversification strategies

B. image108.wmf aggressively pursue take over strategies

C. image109.wmf aggressively “squeeze” manufacturer margins

D. image110.wmf contend with dwindling customer bases

E. image111.wmf dominant the manufacturers they do business with

24) Which of the following statements about leadership is true?

A. image112.wmf Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as or more important than formal influence.

B. image113.wmf managers are leaders.

C. image114.wmf Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively.

D. image115.wmf leaders are managers.

E. image116.wmf leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

25) The traditional view of conflict is the belief that conflict is _____.

A. image117.wmf neutral

B. image118.wmf necessary

C. image119.wmf natural

D. image120.wmf harmful

E. image121.wmf situationally-dependent

26) Negotiation can be defined as a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree upon _____.

A. image122.wmf effective arbitrators for disputes

B. image123.wmf the exchange rate for those goods and services

C. image124.wmf a model of the negotiation process for resolving differences

D. image125.wmf the monetary value of the exchanged items

E. image126.wmf acceptable bargaining strategies for obtaining the goods and services

27) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?

A. image127.wmf A work group consists of 3 or more people from across departmental or functional lines.

B. image128.wmf The performance of a work group is generally greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members.

C. image129.wmf A work group consists of 3 or more people who take on self-supervising responsibilities.

D. image130.wmf A work group is a group comprised of 10 or more people

E. image131.wmf A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort.

28) John Kotter’s view argues that management focuses on coping with complexity, whereas leadership focuses on coping with _____.

A. image132.wmf morale

B. image133.wmf conflict

C. image134.wmf defeat

D. image135.wmf change

E. image136.wmf success

29) Which level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one’s hunger, thirst, and need for sex?

A. image137.wmf esteem

B. image138.wmf safety

C. image139.wmf social

D. image140.wmf psychological

E. image141.wmf physiological

30) _____ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a “fixed pie.”

A. image142.wmf Affective

B. image143.wmf Distributive

C. image144.wmf Reflective

D. image145.wmf Conjunctive

E. image146.wmf Integrative

31) _____ can be used to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly.

A. image147.wmf Documenting with a journal

B. image148.wmf Selective evaluation

C. image149.wmf Multiple raters

D. image150.wmf Focusing on subjective evaluations

E. image151.wmf Due process

32) Which of the following has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that require cognitive complexity?

A. image152.wmf aptitude tests

B. image153.wmf intelligence tests

C. image154.wmf work sampling

D. image155.wmf behavioral assessment

E. image156.wmf integrity evaluations

33) Which type of skill training has become increasingly important in organizations?

A. image157.wmf interpersonal

B. image158.wmf financial

C. image159.wmf problem solving

D. image160.wmf social

E. image161.wmf technical

34) Between the late 1960s and the mid-1980s, the use of written tests declined because they were characterized as _____.

A. image162.wmf invalid

B. image163.wmf unprofessional

C. image164.wmf unreliable

D. image165.wmf mathematically flawed

E. image166.wmf discriminatory

35) Examples of off-the-job training include all of the following except _____.

A. image167.wmf public seminars

B. image168.wmf videotapes

C. image169.wmf classroom lectures

D. image170.wmf apprenticeship programs

E. image171.wmf Internet courses

36) Whenever Jane is successful she takes full credit for what has happened, but whenever she is unsuccessful she attributes her failure to bad luck or blames one of her fellow employees. She is guilty of _____.

A. image172.wmf distinctiveness

B. image173.wmf self-serving bias

C. image174.wmf fundamental attribution error

D. image175.wmf attribution bias

E. image176.wmf the halo effect

37) The “realistic” personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations would be well suited for which of the following jobs?

A. image177.wmf lawyer

B. image178.wmf biologist

C. image179.wmf painter

D. image180.wmf accountant

E. image181.wmf mechanic

38) Each of the six personality types developed in Holland’s personality-job fit theory has a ________.

A. image182.wmf supplemental occupational environment

B. image183.wmf supplemental skill set

C. image184.wmf supplemental personality style

D. image185.wmf congruent personality style

E. image186.wmf congruent occupational environment

39) Phrases such as “more cultural diversity,” “many new entrants with inadequate skills,” and “increase in aging workers” are all examples of what force for change?

A. image187.wmf social trends

B. image188.wmf competition

C. image189.wmf technology

D. image190.wmf world politics

E. image191.wmf nature of the work force

40) Investors bragged about their investing expertise during the stock market rally between 1996 and early 2000, then blamed analysts, brokers, and the Federal Reserve when the market imploded in 2000. These investors were most probably guilty of what?

A. image192.wmf distinctiveness

B. image193.wmf selective perception

C. image194.wmf fundamental attribution error

D. image195.wmf self-serving bias

E. image196.wmf the halo effect

41) Which of the following product promotional activities would probably help make the supply chain more efficient?

A. image197.wmf A 2 for 1 price promotion

B. image198.wmf Special packaging for a specific event that occurs one time each year

C. image199.wmf Price promotions that expire on a specific date

D. image200.wmf An "everyday" low price strategy where prices are not dependent on quantity delivered with a specific order

42) Which of the following would NOT be classified as a time-series technique?

A. image201.wmf regression model

B. image202.wmf trend projections

C. image203.wmf simple moving average

D. image204.wmf exponential smoothing

E. image205.wmf box Jenkins technique

43) The phenomenon of magnification of demand variability as we move from the customer to the producer in the supply-chain is referred to as the:

A. image206.wmf price deflator

B. image207.wmf bullwhip effect

C. image208.wmf postponement effect

D. image209.wmf Elasticity of demand

E. image210.wmf Just-in-time approach

44) The ______ the percentage of contact time between the service system and the customer, the ________ the degree of interaction between the two during the production process.

A. image211.wmf greater, greater

B. image212.wmf lesser, greater

C. image213.wmf greater, lesser

D. image214.wmf none of these answers

45) Under exponential smoothing, if we want our forecast to be responsive to recent demand, the value of alpha should be:

A. image215.wmf moderate

B. image216.wmf small

C. image217.wmf large

D. image218.wmf zero

46) __________ says to look for opportunities to invest in positive-NPV projects in foreign markets or to develop derivatives or design arrangements that enable firms to cope better with the risks they face in their foreign operations.

A. image219.wmf The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency

B. image220.wmf The Principle of Diversification

C. image221.wmf The Principle of Risk-Return Trade-off

D. image222.wmf The Principle of Valuable Ideas

47) An investor's risky portfolio is made up of individual stocks. Which of the following statements about this portfolio is true?

A. image223.wmf An investor cannot change the risk of this portfolio by her choice about personal leverage (lending or borrowing).

B. image224.wmf Selling any stock in this portfolio will lower the beta of the portfolio.

C. image225.wmf Each stock in the portfolio has its own beta.

D. image226.wmf Each stock in the portfolio will have a beta greater than one.

48) Under capital rationing, given the choice among several equally attractive investments, the best tool to use is the __________.

A. image227.wmf Profitability Index method

B. image228.wmf Payback method

C. image229.wmf Internal Rate of Return method

D. image230.wmf Net Present Value method

49) Due to asymmetric information, the market fears that a firm issuing securities will do so when the stock is _________.

A. image231.wmf caught up in a bear market

B. image232.wmf overvalued

C. image233.wmf undervalued

D. image234.wmf being sold by insiders

50) “Hard” capital rationing refers to the rationing __________.

A. image235.wmf always imposed by competitors

B. image236.wmf imposed internally by the shareholders

C. image237.wmf imposed by external factors

D. image238.wmf always imposed by debt holders

51) __________ says to seek out investments that offer the greatest expected risk-adjusted real return.

A. image239.wmf The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior

B. image240.wmf The Signaling Principle

C. image241.wmf The Principle of Incremental Benefits

D. image242.wmf The Principle of Valuable Ideas

52) A checking account is __________.

A. image243.wmf a place to “collect” money between inflows and outflows

B. image244.wmf an account that acts like a reservoir

C. image245.wmf useful because you can add money in any amount

D. image246.wmf all of these

53) Which of the following statements is true?

A. image247.wmf The Principle of Incremental Benefits says to consider the possible ways to minimize the value lost to capital market imperfections, such as asymmetric taxes, asymmetric information, and transaction costs.

B. image248.wmf The Principle of Valuable Ideas suggests to look for opportunities to create value by issuing securities that are in short supply, perhaps resulting from changes in tax law.

C. image249.wmf The Time Value of Money Principle advises to include any time-value-of-money tax benefits from capital structure choices.

D. image250.wmf all of these

54) __________ says to recognize the value of hidden options in a situation, such as the foreign exchange options in some derivative instruments.

A. image251.wmf The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions

B. image252.wmf The Options Principle

C. image253.wmf The Principle of Comparative Advantage

D. image254.wmf The Time Value of Money Principle

55) An all-equity-financed firm would __________.

A. image255.wmf not pay corporate income taxes because it would have no interest expense.

B. image256.wmf not pay any income taxes because interest would exactly offset its taxable income.

C. image257.wmf pay corporate income taxes because it would have interest expense.

D. image258.wmf pay corporate income taxes if its taxable income is positive

62) You work for ABC, Inc. in the finance department. You own shares in ABC, Inc. that are selling at $20 per share on the NYSE. You just found out they will have a new stock offering. You just found out they will publicly announce a new stock offering. The costs from the offering will be 10% of the new offering. The new offering will increase the number of outstanding share by 30%. There are currently 20,000,000 shares of ABC outstanding. Once the announcement is made public, what might be the expected impact from transaction (or issuance) costs on each share you own?

A. image259.wmf You will lose 2% of the value of the shares you own.

B. image260.wmf There will be no costs because markets are perfect when it comes to new stock offerings.

C. image261.wmf There will be no costs because there is no information asymmetry present.

D. image262.wmf You will lose 3% of the value of the share you own.

63) Which (if any) statement is false?

A. image263.wmf The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior suggests that self-interested capital market transactions force market prices toward being fair prices.

B. image264.wmf The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions states that intense capital market competition to get and use information to take advantage of arbitrage opportunities eliminates such opportunities.

C. image265.wmf The Principle of Signaling states that information in the transactions of others can be valuable, such as providing an accurate measure of current market value, or information about expected future value.

D. image266.wmf none of these answers are correct.

64) You do a study and find out that, on average, stock prices for firms decrease 3% for every 5% decrease in inside ownership. You are watching the nightly business report and find out that Magic Tape’s stock has announced that insiders have sold 10% of their holdings. You are concerned because you own 1,000 shares of Magic Tape and it had closed the day before unchanged at $30 per share. If markets are at least semi-strong form efficient, what would you expect?

A. image267.wmf You would lose $1,800.

B. image268.wmf You would expect Magic Tape to close at $28 the day of the announcement.

C. image269.wmf You would lose $4,000.

D. image270.wmf You would lose $2.00 per share

65) Incremental analysis would be appropriate for

A. image271.wmf acceptance of an order at a special price.

B. image272.wmf a retain or replace equipment decision.

C. image273.wmf a sell or process further decision.

D. image274.wmf all of the answers are correct.

66) Which decision will involve no incremental revenues?

A. image275.wmf Accept a special order

B. image276.wmf Make or buy decision

C. image277.wmf Drop a product line

D. image278.wmf Additional processing decision

67) Transfer-pricing systems exist to _____.

A. image279.wmf encourage managers to purchase goods and services internally

B. image280.wmf maximize worldwide taxes, duties, and tariffs

C. image281.wmf evaluate segment performance

D. image282.wmf all of these answers are correct

68) Undertaker Corporation has a joint process that produces three products: P, G, and A. Each product may be sold at split-off or processed further and then sold. Joint processing costs for a year amount to $25,000. Other relevant data are as follows:

Product

Sales Value at Split-off

Processing Costs after Split-off

Sales Value at Completion

P

$62,000

$5,000

$88,000

G

12,500

6,500

19,000

A

9,400

5,000

12,000

Product G _____.

A. image283.wmf should be processed further to increase profits by $19,000.

B. image284.wmf an be processed further or sold at split off; there is no difference in profit.

C. image285.wmf should be sold at split off since processing further would only reduce profits by $6,500.

D. image286.wmf should be processed further to increase profits by $6,500.

69) It costs Garner Company $12 of variable and $5 of fixed costs to produce one bathroom scale which normally sells for $35. A foreign wholesaler offers to purchase 2,000 scales at $15 each. Garner would incur special shipping costs of $1 per scale if the order were accepted. Garner has sufficient unused capacity to produce the 2,000 scales. If the special order is accepted, what will be the effect on net income?

A. image287.wmf $6,000 decrease

B. image288.wmf $30,000 increase

C. image289.wmf $4,000 decrease

D. image290.wmf $4,000 increase

70) A _____ gives the expected sales under a given set of conditions.

A. image291.wmf budget forecast

B. image292.wmf sales forecast

C. image293.wmf sales budget

D. image294.wmf sales prediction

71) The financing section of a cash budget is needed if there is a cash deficiency or if the ending cash balance is less than:

A. image295.wmf the amount needed to avoid a service charge at the bank.

B. image296.wmf the industry average.

C. image297.wmf management's minimum required balance.

D. image298.wmf the prior years.

72) Beginning cash balance plus total receipts

A. image299.wmf equals total available cash.

B. image300.wmf is the excess of available cash over disbursements.

C. image301.wmf must equal total disbursements.

D. image302.wmf equals ending cash balance.

73) Which of the following does not appear as a separate section on the cash budget?

A. image303.wmf Capital expenditures

B. image304.wmf Financing

C. image305.wmf Cash disbursements

D. image306.wmf Cash receipts

74) A variable cost is a cost that

A. image307.wmf varies in total in proportion to changes in the level of activity.

B. image308.wmf may or may not be incurred, depending on management's discretion.

C. image309.wmf occurs at various times during the year.

D. image310.wmf varies per unit at every level of activity.

75) At the break-even point of 2,000 units, variable costs are $55,000, and fixed costs are $32,000. How much is the selling price per unit?

A. image311.wmf $16.00.

B. image312.wmf Not enough information

C. image313.wmf $11.50.

D. image314.wmf $43.50.

76) At the break-even point of 2,500 units, variable costs are $55,000, and fixed costs are $32,000. How much is the selling price per unit?

A. image315.wmf $12.80.

B. image316.wmf $22.00.

C. image317.wmf $9.20.

D. image318.wmf $34.80.

77) How much sales are required to earn a target income of $80,000 if total fixed costs are $100,000 and the contribution margin ratio is 40%?

A. image319.wmf $450,000.

B. image320.wmf $200,000.

C. image321.wmf $330,000.

D. image322.wmf $300,000.

78) There is no difference between variable-costing and absorption-costing income if there is no_____.

A. image323.wmf change in inventory level

B. image324.wmf ending inventory

C. image325.wmf variable overhead cost

D. image326.wmf beginning inventory

79) Identify which of the following statements about "perfection standards" is true.

A. image327.wmf They usually result in unfavorable variances.

B. image328.wmf They are expressions of the most efficient performance possible.

C. image329.wmf All of these answers are correct

D. image330.wmf It is generally believed that they have a negative influence on employee morale.

80) The first step in activity-based costing is to

A. image331.wmf assign manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products.

B. image332.wmf compute the activity-based overhead rate per cost driver.

C. image333.wmf identify and classify the major activities involved in the manufacture of specific products.

D. image334.wmf identify the cost driver that has a strong correlation to the activity cost pool.

81) _____ costs relate to more than one product and cannot be separately identified with an individual product

A. image335.wmf Joint

B. image336.wmf Bundle

C. image337.wmf Allocable

D. image338.wmf Common

82) Which statements describe the principal reason(s) why investors and creditors use financial statement analysis? 1. To assess the risks associated with expected returns 2. To establish recommended dividend and interest payments 3. To evaluate top and middle level management 4. To predict the amount of expected returns

A. image339.wmf 3 and 4

B. image340.wmf 1 and 4

C. image341.wmf 1, 2, and 3

D. image342.wmf 1 and 2

83) The _____ is also called the statement of financial position.

A. image343.wmf statement of retained earnings

B. image344.wmf balance sheet

C. image345.wmf statement of cash flow

D. image346.wmf income statement

84) _____ are profitability ratios.

A. image347.wmf Earnings per share and dividend yield

B. image348.wmf Dividend payout and rate of return in invested capital

C. image349.wmf Price earnings and current ratio

D. image350.wmf Gross profit rate and return on sales

85) The _____ is not one of the three major financial statements.

A. image351.wmf balance

B. image352.wmf income statement

C. image353.wmf statement of equity position

D. image354.wmf statement of cash flows

86) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

A. image355.wmf Mexico

B. image356.wmf China

C. image357.wmf Ecuador

D. image358.wmf Canada

E. image359.wmf Japan

87) The theory of business social responsibility that holds that a business owes duties solely to produce the highest return for its shareholders is:

A. image360.wmf The stakeholder interest theory.

B. image361.wmf The moral minimum theory.

C. image362.wmf The corporate citizenship theory.

D. image363.wmf The maximizing profits theory.

E. image364.wmf The social audit theory.

88) Diversity training programs are generally intended to provide a vehicle for _____.

A. image365.wmf eliminating group learning

B. image366.wmf increasing awareness and examining stereotypes

C. image367.wmf balancing work/life conflicts

D. image368.wmf focusing on individual differences

E. image369.wmf socializing otherwise unmanageable employees

89) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about ___ an hour in China, compared to ____ dollars in the United States.

A. image370.wmf Less than $1; about 25

B. image371.wmf Less than $1; about 15

C. image372.wmf $2; about 25

D. image373.wmf About $2; about 15

E. image374.wmf Less than $1; about 40

90) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with ___________, after the passage of NAFTA, _________ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

A. image375.wmf Canada, Venezuela

B. image376.wmf Canada, Mexico

C. image377.wmf Mexico, Canada

D. image378.wmf Mexico, Venezuela

E. image379.wmf Great Britain, Paraguay

91) Which of the following statements is generally NOT true about state intermediate appellate courts?

A. image380.wmf The appellate court allows the parties to make oral arguments outlining their position.

B. image381.wmf The appellate court reviews the record of the trial court.

C. image382.wmf The appellate court allows the parties to introduce new evidence so long as it was not previously introduced at the original trial.

D. image383.wmf The appellate court usually allows the parties to file briefs outlining support for their positions.

92) Which article of the United States Constitution deals with the judicial power of the federal government?

A. image384.wmf Article III.

B. image385.wmf Article I.

C. image386.wmf Article IV.

D. image387.wmf Article II.

E. image388.wmf Article V.

93) If consumer incomes increase, the demand for product Y will _____________.

A. image389.wmf shift to the right if Y is a complementary good

B. image390.wmf necessarily remain unchanged

C. image391.wmf shift to the right if Y is a normal good

94) When an economist says that the demand for a product has increased, this means that:

A. image392.wmf consumers respond to a lower price by buying more.

B. image393.wmf quantity demanded is greater at each possible price.

C. image394.wmf the demand curve becomes steeper.

D. image395.wmf firms make less of the product available for sale.

95) The costs of delivering products in the _____ channel are much higher than delivering products in the _____ channel.

A. image396.wmf digital, physical

B. image397.wmf e-commerce, digital

C. image398.wmf physical, financial

D. image399.wmf digital, e-commerce

E. image400.wmf physical, digital

96) _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information technologies.

A. image401.wmf globalization

B. image402.wmf regionalization

C. image403.wmf business environment

D. image404.wmf nationalization

97) Which of the following is NOT a function of functional area information systems?

A. image405.wmf provides information mainly in the form of reports

B. image406.wmf provides analysis capabilities to middle level managers and staff

C. image407.wmf supports the managerial tasks of planning, organizing, and controlling operations

D. image408.wmf provides data from business events to the corporate database

E. image409.wmf provides information to managers in the functional areas

98) The use of a(n) _____ serves as a comparison to assess the existence and potency of the manipulation.

A. image410.wmf Criterion variable

B. image411.wmf Field experiment

C. image412.wmf Control group

D. image413.wmf Explanatory variable

E. image414.wmf Experimental group

99) Which source of evidence to support experimental results is most threatened by the use of a field experiment?

A. image415.wmf Control of contamination from extraneous variables

B. image416.wmf Manipulation of the IV

C. image417.wmf Time order of the occurrence of the variables

D. image418.wmf Use of a control group

E. image419.wmf Agreement between the IV and DV

100) A ________ has been defined as being a coordinated collection of data, systems, tools, and techniques with supporting software and hardware by which an organization gathers and interprets relevant information from business and environment and turns it into a basis for marketing action.

A. image420.wmf marketing decision support system

B. image421.wmf database management system

C. image422.wmf marketing intelligence system

D. image423.wmf marketing research system

E. image424.wmf marketing information system

STR581 Final 5.doc

1) A ________ is a set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about developments in the marketing environment.

image1.png A.

image2.wmf

marketing research system

image3.png B.

image4.wmf

marketing intelligence system

image5.png C.

image6.wmf

vertical system

image7.png D.

image8.wmf

product management system

image9.png E.

image10.wmf

marketing information system

2) ________ is the difference between the prospective customer’s evaluation of all the benefits and all the costs of an offering and the perceived alternatives.

image11.png A.

image12.wmf

Perceived usefulness

image13.png B.

image14.wmf

Customer perceived value

image15.png C.

image16.wmf

Competitors market share rate

image17.png D.

image18.wmf

Report rating

image19.png E.

image20.wmf

Failure avoidance rate

3) A(n) ________ is any good, service, or idea that is perceived by someone as new.

image21.png A.

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product

image23.png B.

image24.wmf

creative product

image25.png C.

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new idea

image27.png D.

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innovation

4) A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads competitors’ published reports and stockholder information, the company is using ________ to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence.

image29.png A.

image30.wmf

sales force surrogates

image31.png B.

image32.wmf

advisory panels

image33.png C.

image34.wmf

customer feedback systems

image35.png D.

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external networks

image37.png E.

image38.wmf

intermediaries

5) Most established companies focus on ________ when it comes to innovation.

image39.png A.

image40.wmf

incremental innovation

image41.png B.

image42.wmf

demand innovation

image43.png C.

image44.wmf

competitive innovation

image45.png D.

image46.wmf

everyday innovation

image47.png E.

image48.wmf

continuous innovation

6) ________ consists of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers.

image49.png A.

image50.wmf

A marketing information system

image51.png B.

image52.wmf

A promotional campaign

image53.png C.

image54.wmf

A marketing database

image55.png D.

image56.wmf

A marketing intelligence system

image57.png E.

image58.wmf

A marketing research system

7) The value proposition consists of a cluster of benefits the company promises to deliver; it is

image59.png A.

image60.wmf

customer expectations

image61.png B.

image62.wmf

Customer loyalty to the company

image63.png C.

image64.wmf

business processes

image65.png D.

image66.wmf

total customer satisfaction

image67.png E.

image68.wmf

customer experience with the company

8) Purchase decisions are based on how consumers perceive prices and what they consider tobe the ________ price—not the marketer’s stated price.

image69.png A.

image70.wmf

current sale price

image71.png B.

image72.wmf

current actual

image73.png C.

image74.wmf

referent price

image75.png D.

image76.wmf

last purchased price

9) A ________ consists of a group of customers who share a similar set of needs and wants.

image77.png A.

image78.wmf

market segment

image79.png B.

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market target

image81.png C.

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market level

image83.png D.

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market slice

image85.png E.

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market group

10) Marketers usually identify niches by ________.

image87.png A.

image88.wmf

examining the demographics section of The Handbook of Marketing

image89.png B.

image90.wmf

dividing a segment into subsegments

image91.png C.

image92.wmf

producing products that can be used in a variety of ways

image93.png D.

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allowing consumers to gravitate toward product brands

image95.png E.

image96.wmf

conducting VALS tests

11) Which of the following is generally considered to be the last step in the marketing research process?

image97.png A.

image98.wmf

Make the decision.

image99.png B.

image100.wmf

Present the findings.

image101.png C.

image102.wmf

Draft the report

image103.png D.

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Control the environment.

image105.png E.

image106.wmf

Analyze the information.

12) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific marketing situation facing the company.

image107.png A.

image108.wmf

Demographics

image109.png B.

image110.wmf

Marketing intelligence

image111.png C.

image112.wmf

Marketing management

image113.png D.

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Marketing research

image115.png E.

image116.wmf

MIS (marketing information system)

13) With respect to the sampling plan, three decisions must be made. The decisions are: the sampling unit—who is to be surveyed? Sample size—how many people should be surveyed? And ________.

image117.png A.

image118.wmf

sampling procedure—how should the respondents be chosen?

image119.png B.

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sample cost—how much does sampling cost?

image121.png C.

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sample supervisor—who will lead the sampling effort?

image123.png D.

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sample security—how to protect the sample data?

image125.png E.

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surveyor skill—who will do the surveying?

14) ________ communicates a company’s intended value positioning of its product or brand to the market.

image127.png A.

image128.wmf

Promotion

image129.png B.

image130.wmf

Packaging

image131.png C.

image132.wmf

Physical evidence

image133.png D.

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Place

image135.png E.

image136.wmf

Price

15) “Power prices” use price as a key strategic tool. These “power prices” have discovered the highly ________ effect of price on the bottom line.

image137.png A.

image138.wmf

direct

image139.png B.

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dramatic

image141.png C.

image142.wmf

soothing

image143.png D.

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leveraged

image145.png E.

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abrasive

16) Some intermediaries use the following: strategic planning, advanced information systems, sophisticated marketing tools, measure performance on a return-on-investment basis, segment their markets, improve their target marketing and positioning, and ________.

image147.png A.

image148.wmf

dominant the manufacturers they do business with

image149.png B.

image150.wmf

contend with dwindling customer bases

image151.png C.

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aggressively pursue market expansion and diversification strategies

image153.png D.

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aggressively pursue take over strategies

image155.png E.

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aggressively “squeeze” manufacturer margins

17) Price has operated as the major determinant of buyer choice among poorer nations, among poorer groups, and with ________ products.

image157.png A.

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similar

image159.png B.

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identical

image161.png C.

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commodity-type

image163.png D.

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over the Internet

18) Major retailer types include the following EXCEPT ________.

image165.png A.

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the Internet

image167.png B.

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specialty store

image169.png C.

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superstore

image171.png D.

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catalog showroom

image173.png E.

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discount store

19) Following the ________ approach to target market selection encompasses a strong knowledge of the segment’s needs, a strong market presence, and operating economies through specializing in production, distribution, and promotion.

image175.png A.

image176.wmf

selective specialization

image177.png B.

image178.wmf

market specialization

image179.png C.

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full market coverage

image181.png D.

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product specialization

image183.png E.

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single-segment concentration

20) To reach Generation Y, rock band Foo Fighters created a digital street team that sends targeted e-mail messages to members who “get the latest news, exclusive audio/video sneak previews, tons of chances to win great Foo Fighters prizes, and become part of the Foo Fighters Family.” Which of the following techniques for reaching Generation Y are the Foo Fighters using?

image185.png A.

image186.wmf

Unconventional sports

image187.png B.

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Computer games

image189.png C.

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Online buzz

image191.png D.

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Cool events

image193.png E.

image194.wmf

Student ambassadors

21) A company can add new products through acquisition or development. The acquisition route can take three forms. The company can buy other companies, it can acquire patents from other companies, or it can buy a ________ or _________ from another company.

image195.png A.

image196.wmf

license/receive permission

image197.png B.

image198.wmf

franchise/co-brand

image199.png C.

image200.wmf

franchise/acquire rights

image201.png D.

image202.wmf

license/franchise

22) New-to-the- world products are ________.

image203.png A.

image204.wmf

new products that allow a company to enter an established market for the first time

image205.png B.

image206.wmf

new products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value and replace existing products

image207.png C.

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existing products that are targeted to new markets or market segments

image209.png D.

image210.wmf

new products that supplement established product lines (package sizes, flavors, and so on)

image211.png E.

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new products that create an entirely new market

23) The chief disadvantage to a firm that decides to follow a product specialization strategy in selecting target markets is ________.

image213.png A.

image214.wmf

logistics can become a nightmare

image215.png B.

image216.wmf

competitors can easily copy any new product introductions

image217.png C.

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e-commerce becomes difficult for the company

image219.png D.

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the product may be supplanted by an entirely new technology

image221.png E.

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no synergy exists

24) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?

image223.png A.

image224.wmf

A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort.

image225.png B.

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A work group consists of 3 or more people from across departmental or functional lines.

image227.png C.

image228.wmf

A work group is a group comprised of 10 or more people

image229.png D.

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A work group consists of 3 or more people who take on self-supervising responsibilities.

image231.png E.

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The performance of a work group is generally greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members.

25) The traditional view of conflict is the belief that conflict is _____.

image233.png A.

image234.wmf

natural

image235.png B.

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situationally-dependent

image237.png C.

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neutral

image239.png D.

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necessary

image241.png E.

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harmful

26) Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of conflict?

image243.png A.

image244.wmf

disruption of tasks

image245.png B.

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negative effects

image247.png C.

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incompatibility

image249.png D.

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something that is cared about

image251.png E.

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perception

27) Which of the following statements about leadership is true?

image253.png A.

image254.wmf

Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively.

image255.png B.

image256.wmf

leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

image257.png C.

image258.wmf

Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as or more important than formal influence.

image259.png D.

image260.wmf

managers are leaders.

image261.png E.

image262.wmf

leaders are managers.

28) _____ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a “fixed pie.”

image263.png A.

image264.wmf

Integrative

image265.png B.

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Affective

image267.png C.

image268.wmf

Conjunctive

image269.png D.

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Reflective

image271.png E.

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Distributive

29) Danielle wants to become a surgeon, not only because achieving this goal will give her self-respect and autonomy, but also because she wants a job with high status and recognition from others. Which of Maslow’s needs is Danielle trying to fill?

image273.png A.

image274.wmf

social

image275.png B.

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psychological

image277.png C.

image278.wmf

safety

image279.png D.

image280.wmf

esteem

image281.png E.

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self-actualization

30) Which of the following qualities is NOT found in work groups?

image283.png A.

image284.wmf

security

image285.png B.

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energy

image287.png C.

image288.wmf

objectives

image289.png D.

image290.wmf

enthusiasm

image291.png E.

image292.wmf

synergy

31) Between the late 1960s and the mid-1980s, the use of written tests declined because they were characterized as _____.

image293.png A.

image294.wmf

mathematically flawed

image295.png B.

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unprofessional

image297.png C.

image298.wmf

invalid

image299.png D.

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discriminatory

image301.png E.

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unreliable

32) _____ can be used to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly.

image303.png A.

image304.wmf

Focusing on subjective evaluations

image305.png B.

image306.wmf

Selective evaluation

image307.png C.

image308.wmf

Documenting with a journal

image309.png D.

image310.wmf

Due process

image311.png E.

image312.wmf

Multiple raters

33) Which of the following has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that require cognitive complexity?

image313.png A.

image314.wmf

behavioral assessment

image315.png B.

image316.wmf

intelligence tests

image317.png C.

image318.wmf

aptitude tests

image319.png D.

image320.wmf

integrity evaluations

image321.png E.

image322.wmf

work sampling

34) Examples of off-the-job training include all of the following except _____.

image323.png A.

image324.wmf

videotapes

image325.png B.

image326.wmf

classroom lectures

image327.png C.

image328.wmf

public seminars

image329.png D.

image330.wmf

apprenticeship programs

image331.png E.

image332.wmf

Internet courses

35) Which type of skill training has become increasingly important in organizations?

image333.png A.

image334.wmf

social

image335.png B.

image336.wmf

financial

image337.png C.

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interpersonal

image339.png D.

image340.wmf

technical

image341.png E.

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problem solving

36) The “realistic” personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations would be well suited for which of the following jobs?

image343.png A.

image344.wmf

biologist

image345.png B.

image346.wmf

painter

image347.png C.

image348.wmf

lawyer

image349.png D.

image350.wmf

accountant

image351.png E.

image352.wmf

mechanic

37) Investors bragged about their investing expertise during the stock market rally between 1996 and early 2000, then blamed analysts, brokers, and the Federal Reserve when the market imploded in 2000. These investors were most probably guilty of what?

image353.png A.

image354.wmf

selective perception

image355.png B.

image356.wmf

fundamental attribution error

image357.png C.

image358.wmf

distinctiveness

image359.png D.

image360.wmf

self-serving bias

image361.png E.

image362.wmf

the halo effect

38) Each of the six personality types developed in Holland’s personality-job fit theory has a ________.

image363.png A.

image364.wmf

supplemental skill set

image365.png B.

image366.wmf

supplemental personality style

image367.png C.

image368.wmf

supplemental occupational environment

image369.png D.

image370.wmf

congruent personality style

image371.png E.

image372.wmf

congruent occupational environment

39) _____ developed a Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire that contains 160 occupational titles.

image373.png A.

image374.wmf

Surber

image375.png B.

image376.wmf

Maslow

image377.png C.

image378.wmf

Herzberg

image379.png D.

image380.wmf

Holland

image381.png E.

image382.wmf

Hofstede

40) Phrases such as “more cultural diversity,” “many new entrants with inadequate skills,” and “increase in aging workers” are all examples of what force for change?

image383.png A.

image384.wmf

competition

image385.png B.

image386.wmf

technology

image387.png C.

image388.wmf

social trends

image389.png D.

image390.wmf

world politics

image391.png E.

image392.wmf

nature of the work force

41) According to David Maister, the most complex projects requiring innovation and creativity are called _________.

image393.png A.

image394.wmf

“gray hair” projects

image395.png B.

image396.wmf

“brain surgery” projects

image397.png C.

image398.wmf

“grinding” projects

image399.png D.

image400.wmf

“procedures” projects

42) The ______ the percentage of contact time between the service system and the customer, the ________ the degree of interaction between the two during the production process.

image401.png A.

image402.wmf

lesser, greater

image403.png B.

image404.wmf

greater, greater

image405.png C.

image406.wmf

none of these answers

image407.png D.

image408.wmf

greater, lesser

43) Goldratt's rule of production scheduling include all but:

image409.png A.

image410.wmf

An hour saved at a non-bottleneck is a mirage

image411.png B.

image412.wmf

A process batch should be fixed both along its route and in time

image413.png C.

image414.wmf

Priorities can be set only by examining the system's constraints

image415.png D.

image416.wmf

Do not balance the capacity - balance the flow

image417.png E.

image418.wmf

Utilization and activation of a resource is not the same thing

44) If the system contains a bottleneck, the _______ is the best place for control. If there is no bottleneck, the __________ is the best place for control.

image419.png A.

image420.wmf

capacity-constrained resource, drum

image421.png B.

image422.wmf

bottleneck, capacity constrained resource

image423.png C.

image424.wmf

none of these answers

image425.png D.

image426.wmf

capacity-constrained resource, bottleneck

45) Operations stage toolkit for the Data Analysis and Solution Development phase include(s): I. SPC tools II. Bottleneck analysis III. Computer simulation IV. Balanced scoreboard

image427.png A.

image428.wmf

I, II, III

image429.png B.

image430.wmf

II, III, and IV

image431.png C.

image432.wmf

I, II, III, and IV

image433.png D.

image434.wmf

I and II

image435.png E.

image436.wmf

II and III

46) Which of the following statements is true?

image437.png A.

image438.wmf

The Principle of Incremental Benefits says to consider the possible ways to minimize the value lost to capital market imperfections, such as asymmetric taxes, asymmetric information, and transaction costs.

image439.png B.

image440.wmf

The Principle of Valuable Ideas suggests to look for opportunities to create value by issuing securities that are in short supply, perhaps resulting from changes in tax law.

image441.png C.

image442.wmf

The Time Value of Money Principle advises to include any time-value-of-money tax benefits from capital structure choices.

image443.png D.

image444.wmf

all of these

47) An all-equity-financed firm would __________.

image445.png A.

image446.wmf

pay corporate income taxes because it would have interest expense.

image447.png B.

image448.wmf

not pay corporate income taxes because it would have no interest expense.

image449.png C.

image450.wmf

pay corporate income taxes if its taxable income is positive

image451.png D.

image452.wmf

not pay any income taxes because interest would exactly offset its taxable income.

48) __________ says to recognize the value of hidden options in a situation, such as the foreign exchange options in some derivative instruments.

image453.png A.

image454.wmf

The Principle of Comparative Advantage

image455.png B.

image456.wmf

The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions

image457.png C.

image458.wmf

The Time Value of Money Principle

image459.png D.

image460.wmf

The Options Principle

49) __________ says to look for opportunities to invest in positive-NPV projects in foreign markets or to develop derivatives or design arrangements that enable firms to cope better with the risks they face in their foreign operations.

image461.png A.

image462.wmf

The Principle of Diversification

image463.png B.

image464.wmf

The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency

image465.png C.

image466.wmf

The Principle of Valuable Ideas

image467.png D.

image468.wmf

The Principle of Risk-Return Trade-off

50) Which of the following statements is true?

image469.png A.

image470.wmf

The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency says to consider the possible ways to minimize the value lost to capital market imperfections, such as asymmetric taxes, asymmetric information, and transaction costs.

image471.png B.

image472.wmf

The Behavioral Principle suggests to look for opportunities to create value by issuing securities that are in short supply, perhaps resulting from changes in tax law.

image473.png C.

image474.wmf

The Signaling Principle says to consider any possible change in capital structure carefully, because financing transactions and capital structure changes convey information to outsiders and can be misunderstood.

image475.png D.

image476.wmf

all of these

51) An investor's risky portfolio is made up of individual stocks. Which of the following statements about this portfolio is true?

image477.png A.

image478.wmf

Selling any stock in this portfolio will lower the beta of the portfolio.

image479.png B.

image480.wmf

An investor cannot change the risk of this portfolio by her choice about personal leverage (lending or borrowing).

image481.png C.

image482.wmf

Each stock in the portfolio will have a beta greater than one.

image483.png D.

image484.wmf

Each stock in the portfolio has its own beta.

52) Due to asymmetric information, the market fears that a firm issuing securities will do so when the stock is _________.

image485.png A.

image486.wmf

overvalued

image487.png B.

image488.wmf

caught up in a bear market

image489.png C.

image490.wmf

being sold by insiders

image491.png D.

image492.wmf

undervalued

53) __________ says to seek out investments that offer the greatest expected risk-adjusted real return.

image493.png A.

image494.wmf

The Signaling Principle

image495.png B.

image496.wmf

The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior

image497.png C.

image498.wmf

The Principle of Valuable Ideas

image499.png D.

image500.wmf

The Principle of Incremental Benefits

54) Under capital rationing, a good tool to use is the __________.

image501.png A.

image502.wmf

payback method

image503.png B.

image504.wmf

PI method

image505.png C.

image506.wmf

NPV method

image507.png D.

image508.wmf

IRR method

55) A checking account is __________.

image509.png A.

image510.wmf

a place to “collect” money between inflows and outflows

image511.png B.

image512.wmf

an account that acts like a reservoir

image513.png C.

image514.wmf

useful because you can add money in any amount

image515.png D.

image516.wmf

all of these

56) __________ says that if you transfer risk to another party, you must offer a return that fully compensates for the amount of risk transferred.

image517.png A.

image518.wmf

The Principle of Self-Interested

image519.png B.

image520.wmf

The Principle of Incremental Benefits

image521.png C.

image522.wmf

The Risk-Return Trade-Off Principle

image523.png D.

image524.wmf

The Behavioral Principle

57) A key variable covered in our text for the Black-Scholes OPM is __________.

image525.png A.

image526.wmf

the riskless APR with continuous compounding

image527.png B.

image528.wmf

dividends.

image529.png C.

image530.wmf

EPS.

image531.png D.

image532.wmf

transaction costs.

58) Dimensions of risk include __________.

image533.png A.

image534.wmf

uncertainty about yesterday’s outcome

image535.png B.

image536.wmf

the impossibility of the same return

image537.png C.

image538.wmf

the certainty of a negative outcome

image539.png D.

image540.wmf

uncertainty about the future outcome

59) According to the Principle of Risk-Return Trade-Off, investors require a higher return to compensate for __________.

image541.png A.

image542.wmf

greater risk

image543.png B.

image544.wmf

less risk

image545.png C.

image546.wmf

diversification

image547.png D.

image548.wmf

lack of diversification

60) Which of these investments would you expect to have the highest rate of return for the next 20 years?

image549.png A.

image550.wmf

anybody’s guess

image551.png B.

image552.wmf

intermediate-term U.S. government bonds

image553.png C.

image554.wmf

long-term corporate bonds

image555.png D.

image556.wmf

U.S. Treasury bills

61) The conversion price (for a convertible security) is usually adjusted __________.

image557.png A.

image558.wmf

for a new debt offering.

image559.png B.

image560.wmf

for stock splits.

image561.png C.

image562.wmf

for cash dividends.

image563.png D.

image564.wmf

all of these

62) Which (if any) statement is false?

image565.png A.

image566.wmf

The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior suggests that self-interested capital market transactions force market prices toward being fair prices.

image567.png B.

image568.wmf

The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions states that intense capital market competition to get and use information to take advantage of arbitrage opportunities eliminates such opportunities.

image569.png C.

image570.wmf

The Principle of Signaling states that information in the transactions of others can be valuable, such as providing an accurate measure of current market value, or information about expected future value.

image571.png D.

image572.wmf

none of these answers are correct.

63) Which of the following is (are) true?

image573.png A.

image574.wmf

The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency states that differences between financial assets are measured primarily in terms of risk and return. Investors choose the highest return for a given risk level.

image575.png B.

image576.wmf

The Principle of Comparative Advantage states that people apply the Principles of Self-Interested Behavior, Two-Sided Transactions, and Signaling to an environment characterized by similar financial assets, low transaction costs, and intense competition leads to capital market efficiency.

image577.png C.

image578.wmf

The Principle of Valuable Ideas states that new ideas can provide value when first introduced, even in an efficient capital market.

image579.png D.

image580.wmf

all of these answers are correct.

64) Which of the following is (are) true?

image581.png A.

image582.wmf

The Principle of Capital Market Efficiency states that differences between financial assets are measured primarily in terms of risk and return. Investors choose the highest return for a given risk level.

image583.png B.

image584.wmf

The Principle of Comparative Advantage states that people apply the Principles of Self-Interested Behavior, Two-Sided Transactions, and Signaling to an environment characterized by similar financial assets, low transaction costs, and intense competition leads to capital market efficiency.

image585.png C.

image586.wmf

The Principle of Valuable Ideas states that new ideas can provide value when first introduced, even in an efficient capital market.

image587.png D.

image588.wmf

all of these answers are correct.

65) A transfer price exists when two segments of the same organization sell _____.

image589.png A.

image590.wmf

the same service to competitors

image591.png B.

image592.wmf

a product in a foreign country

image593.png C.

image594.wmf

a service to each other

image595.png D.

image596.wmf

a product to the same customer

66) Incremental analysis would be appropriate for

image597.png A.

image598.wmf

acceptance of an order at a special price.

image599.png B.

image600.wmf

a retain or replace equipment decision.

image601.png C.

image602.wmf

a sell or process further decision.

image603.png D.

image604.wmf

all of the answers are correct.

67) 

Undertaker Corporation has a joint process that produces three products: P, G, and A.

Each product may be sold at split-off or processed further and then sold. Joint processing

costs for a year amount to $25,000. Other relevant data are as follows:

Processing

Sales Value Costs after Sales Value

Product at Split-off Split-off at Completion

P $62,000 $5,000 $88,000

G 12,500 6,500 19,000

A 9,400 5,000 12,000

Product G _____.

image605.png A.

image606.wmf

an be processed further or sold at split off; there is no difference in profit.

image607.png B.

image608.wmf

should be processed further to increase profits by $19,000.

image609.png C.

image610.wmf

should be sold at split off since processing further would only reduce profits by $6,500.

image611.png D.

image612.wmf

should be processed further to increase profits by $6,500.

68) It costs Garner Company $12 of variable and $5 of fixed costs to produce one bathroom scale which normally sells for $35. A foreign wholesaler offers to purchase 2,000 scales at $15 each. Garner would incur special shipping costs of $1 per scale if the order were accepted. Garner has sufficient unused capacity to produce the 2,000 scales. If the special order is accepted, what will be the effect on net income?

image613.png A.

image614.wmf

$30,000 increase

image615.png B.

image616.wmf

$6,000 decrease

image617.png C.

image618.wmf

$4,000 decrease

image619.png D.

image620.wmf

$4,000 increase

69) Incremental analysis would not be appropriate for

image621.png A.

image622.wmf

Analysis of manufacturing variances

image623.png B.

image624.wmf

elimination of an unprofitable segment.

image625.png C.

image626.wmf

an allocation of limited resource decision.

image627.png D.

image628.wmf

a make or buy decision.

70) Which of the following does not appear as a separate section on the cash budget?

image629.png A.

image630.wmf

Financing

image631.png B.

image632.wmf

Capital expenditures

image633.png C.

image634.wmf

Cash disbursements

image635.png D.

image636.wmf

Cash receipts

71) Blue Company planned to sell 35,000 units. Actual sales were 30,000 units. Based on this information, Blue Company was _____.

image637.png A.

image638.wmf

ineffective

image639.png B.

image640.wmf

effective

image641.png C.

image642.wmf

inefficient

image643.png D.

image644.wmf

efficient

72) Effectiveness is indicated by _____.

image645.png A.

image646.wmf

all of these answers are correct

image647.png B.

image648.wmf

flexible-budget variances

image649.png C.

image650.wmf

static-budget variances

image651.png D.

image652.wmf

sales-activity variances

73) A _____ gives the expected sales under a given set of conditions.

image653.png A.

image654.wmf

budget forecast

image655.png B.

image656.wmf

sales budget

image657.png C.

image658.wmf

sales forecast

image659.png D.

image660.wmf

sales prediction

74) For an activity base to be useful in cost behavior analysis,

image661.png A.

image662.wmf

the activity should always be stated in terms of units.

image663.png B.

image664.wmf

there should be a correlation between changes in the level of activity and changes in costs.

image665.png C.

image666.wmf

the activity level should be constant over a period of time.

image667.png D.

image668.wmf

the activity should always be stated in dollars.

75) A company has total fixed costs of $120,000 and a contribution margin ratio of 20%. The total sales necessary to break even are

image669.png A.

image670.wmf

$150,000.

image671.png B.

image672.wmf

$600,000.

image673.png C.

image674.wmf

$144,000.

image675.png D.

image676.wmf

$480,000.

76) A company requires $1,020,000 in sales to meet its net income target. Its contribution margin is 30%, and fixed costs are $180,000. What is the target net income?

image677.png A.

image678.wmf

$420,000.

image679.png B.

image680.wmf

$234,000.

image681.png C.

image682.wmf

$126,000.

image683.png D.

image684.wmf

$306,000.

77) At the break-even point of 2,000 units, variable costs are $55,000, and fixed costs are $32,000. How much is the selling price per unit?

image685.png A.

image686.wmf

$16.00.

image687.png B.

image688.wmf

$11.50.

image689.png C.

image690.wmf

Not enough information

image691.png D.

image692.wmf

$43.50.

78) The last step in activity-based costing is to

image693.png A.

image694.wmf

identify and classify the major activities involved in the manufacture of specific products.

image695.png B.

image696.wmf

compute the activity-based overhead rate per cost driver.

image697.png C.

image698.wmf

identify the cost driver that has a strong correlation to the activity cost pool.

image699.png D.

image700.wmf

assign manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products.

79) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with

image701.png A.

image702.wmf

assigning manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products.

image703.png B.

image704.wmf

computing the activity-based overhead rate.

image705.png C.

image706.wmf

analyzing the activities performed to manufacture a product.

image707.png D.

image708.wmf

identifying the activity-cost pools.

80) Identify which of the following statements about "perfection standards" is true.

image709.png A.

image710.wmf

They usually result in unfavorable variances.

image711.png B.

image712.wmf

They are expressions of the most efficient performance possible.

image713.png C.

image714.wmf

All of these answers are correct

image715.png D.

image716.wmf

It is generally believed that they have a negative influence on employee morale.

81) In a process cost system,

image717.png A.

image718.wmf

a Work in Process account is maintained for each process.

image719.png B.

image720.wmf

a materials requisition must identify the job on which the materials will be used.

image721.png C.

image722.wmf

one Work in Process account is maintained for all the processes, similar to a job order cost system.

image723.png D.

image724.wmf

a Work in Process account is maintained for each product.

82) _____ are profitability ratios.

image725.png A.

image726.wmf

Earnings per share and dividend yield

image727.png B.

image728.wmf

Dividend payout and rate of return in invested capital

image729.png C.

image730.wmf

Price earnings and current ratio

image731.png D.

image732.wmf

Gross profit rate and return on sales

83) The _____ is not one of the three major financial statements.

image733.png A.

image734.wmf

balance

image735.png B.

image736.wmf

income statement

image737.png C.

image738.wmf

statement of equity position

image739.png D.

image740.wmf

statement of cash flows

84) Financial statements are helpful to predict the future performance of a company for all of the following reasons except _____.

image741.png A.

image742.wmf

financial statements are required to give formal projections of management's assessment of the next period's financial results

image743.png B.

image744.wmf

the assets and liabilities of a company provide clues to a company's future prospects

image745.png C.

image746.wmf

past performance is often a good indicator of future performance

image747.png D.

image748.wmf

the evaluation of management's past performance gives clues to its ability to generate future returns

85) A local retail shop has been operating as a sole proprietorship. The business is growing and now the owner wants to incorporate. Which of the following is not a reason for this owner to incorporate?

image749.png A.

image750.wmf

ability to raise capital for expansion

image751.png B.

image752.wmf

the ease in transferring shares of the corporation’s stock

image753.png C.

image754.wmf

the prestige of operating as a corporation

image755.png D.

image756.wmf

desire to limit the owner’s personal liability

86) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

image757.png A.

image758.wmf

Japan

image759.png B.

image760.wmf

Ecuador

image761.png C.

image762.wmf

China

image763.png D.

image764.wmf

Mexico

image765.png E.

image766.wmf

Canada

87) Which of the following might a company consider to help employees address work-life conflicts?

image767.png A.

image768.wmf

keeping work-related travel reasonable

image769.png B.

image770.wmf

relocation assistance

image771.png C.

image772.wmf

tie manager pay to customer satisfaction

image773.png D.

image774.wmf

offering off-site quality child-care

image775.png E.

image776.wmf

reducing workloads

88) Which of the following is not one of the Caux Round Table Principles for International Business?

image777.png A.

image778.wmf

Avoidance of Illicit Operations.

image779.png B.

image780.wmf

Responsibility of Business Beyond Shareholders Toward Stakeholders.

image781.png C.

image782.wmf

Respect for the Environment.

image783.png D.

image784.wmf

Promotion of Multiculturalism.

image785.png E.

image786.wmf

Support for Multilateral Trade.

89) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about ___ an hour in China, compared to ____ dollars in the United States.

image787.png A.

image788.wmf

Less than $1; about 15

image789.png B.

image790.wmf

Less than $1; about 40

image791.png C.

image792.wmf

$2; about 25

image793.png D.

image794.wmf

Less than $1; about 25

image795.png E.

image796.wmf

About $2; about 15

90) Diversity training programs are generally intended to provide a vehicle for _____.

image797.png A.

image798.wmf

increasing awareness and examining stereotypes

image799.png B.

image800.wmf

socializing otherwise unmanageable employees

image801.png C.

image802.wmf

balancing work/life conflicts

image803.png D.

image804.wmf

eliminating group learning

image805.png E.

image806.wmf

focusing on individual differences

91) Which of the following is correct about litigating commercial disputes?

image807.png A.

image808.wmf

Nearly all states have specialized trial courts that hear commercial disputes.

image809.png B.

image810.wmf

In all states, commercial disputes must be heard in a limited-jurisdiction court.

image811.png C.

image812.wmf

Businesses generally dislike the concept of specialized trail courts for commercial disputes because the large numbers of consumers who sue businesses in these courts have led the judges to become generally biased against business.

image813.png D.

image814.wmf

A few states have established specialized trial courts for commercial disputes.

image815.png E.

image816.wmf

Commercial disputes, because of their specialized nature, are first heard at the appellate court level.

92) Which article of the United States Constitution deals with the judicial power of the federal government?

image817.png A.

image818.wmf

Article I.

image819.png B.

image820.wmf

Article V.

image821.png C.

image822.wmf

Article IV.

image823.png D.

image824.wmf

Article III.

image825.png E.

image826.wmf

Article II.

93) When an economist says that the demand for a product has increased, this means that:

image827.png A.

image828.wmf

quantity demanded is greater at each possible price.

image829.png B.

image830.wmf

the demand curve becomes steeper.

image831.png C.

consumers respond to a lower price by buying more.

image832.png D.

firms make less of the product available for sale.

94) When movie ticket prices increase, families tend to spend less time watching movies and more time at home watching videos instead. This best reflects:

image833.png A.

diminishing marginal utility.

image834.png B.

the substitution effect.

image835.png C.

the rationing function of markets.

image836.png D.

the income effect.

95) Which of the following is NOT a function of functional area information systems?

image837.png A.

provides information to managers in the functional areas

image838.png B.

provides analysis capabilities to middle level managers and staff

image839.png C.

provides data from business events to the corporate database

image840.png D.

provides information mainly in the form of reports

image841.png E.

supports the managerial tasks of planning, organizing, and controlling operations

96) The costs of delivering products in the _____ channel are much higher than delivering products in the _____ channel.

image842.png A.

physical, financial

image843.png B.

digital, e-commerce

image844.png C.

physical, digital

image845.png D.

digital, physical

image846.png E.

e-commerce, digital

97) _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information technologies.

image847.png A.

globalization

image848.png B.

regionalization

image849.png C.

business environment

image850.png D.

nationalization

98) A _____ scale is a scale that scores an object or property without making a direct comparison to another object or property.

image851.png A.

Sorting

image852.png B.

Rating

image853.png C.

Recording

image854.png D.

Categorization

image855.png E.

Ranking

99) The quartile deviation is:

image856.png A.

In squared units of the original data.

image857.png B.

The square root of the variance.

image858.png C.

Appropriate only for symmetric distributions.

image859.png D.

Based on the middle 50 percent of the observations.

100) Marketing research is now about a ________ billion industry globally.

image860.png A.

$10

image861.png B.

$21.5

image862.png C.

$7.5

image863.png D.

$16.5

image864.png E.

$50

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SOC 120.zip

SOC 120/All discussion question/Course Syllabus.docx

Course Syllabus

SOC120 Introduction to Sociology

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Please print a copy of this syllabus for handy reference. Whenever there is a question about what assignments are due, please remember this syllabus is considered the ruling document.

Copyright Copyright ©2009 by University of Phoenix. All rights reserved. University of Phoenix© is a registered trademark of Apollo Group, Inc. in the United States and/or other countries. Microsoft©, Windows©, and Windows NT© are registered trademarks of Microsoft Corporation in the United States and/or other countries. All other company and product names are trademarks or registered trademarks of their respective companies. Use of these marks is not intended to imply endorsement, sponsorship, or affiliation. Edited in accordance with University of Phoenix© editorial standards and practices.

Facilitator Information                                                                                                      

Loren Butler [email protected] (University of Phoenix) [email protected] (Personal) 727-709-8282 (EST)

Facilitator Availability I am usually available throughout the day by email, but the best time to reach me by phone is late afternoon or early evening. I check my email very frequently and will respond to you within 24 hours, but typically much sooner.

I am usually available from 3 p.m. - 6 p.m. EST during most weekdays and from 11 a.m. to 3 p.m. on Saturday; however, I attempt to reserve Sunday for my family. If these times are not convenient for you, please let me know and I will be happy to accommodate your schedule, when possible.

I am not providing you with these times to limit our contact, but to make it easier for you to communicate with me. I want you to know that should you need to contact me outside these time frames, you should not hesitate to do so. I am available to schedule appointments via phone, if necessary. I am here to help you succeed in any way I can.

For emergencies, when you are not able to gain access to messages on the Online Learning System (OLS), please send a message to my personal email address. In the event a third party needs to contact me, please direct them to my contact information listed under "facilitator information." No third party should use your login credentials to gain access to the classroom.

Where to Go to Class                                                                                                        Main: This is the main forum for the class and is where discussion is conducted. It has read-and-write access for everyone. Chat-Room: This is a read-and-write access forum. It is designed as a place to discuss issues not related to the course content. This is the forum to which we will send our bios. Course-Materials: This is a read-only forum, which means you can read messages here but cannot send any. This is where I will post the course syllabus and materials. Individual Forum: You will see one forum with your name on it. This is a private forum, shared only by you and me, the facilitator. Your classmates will not have access to this forum. You can ask me questions here. However, if you have general questions about instructions of assignments, please post those in the Main forum, since other students may benefit by that exchange as well.

Policies                                                                                                                               For class policies, please see the Policies link on the left side of the Materials page for the course on eCampus. Faculty and students/learners will be held responsible for understanding and adhering to all policies contained within that link. University policies are subject to change so please be sure to read them at the beginning of each class as it may have changed since your last class. Policies may be slightly different depending on the modality in which you attend class. If you have recently changed modalities it is important you read the policies governing your current class modality.

Technical Support                                                                                                             Technical Support is available 24 hours a day, 365 days a year. Call 1-877-832-4867, or use the e-mail support form. Answers to the most common issues are found in the Knowledge Base by clicking Help, found at the top of every student Web site.

Feedback                                                                                                                            Each week, I will provide grades or scores and comments on your assignments.

Grading Formula                                                                                                               

Points

Grade

95+

A

90-94

A-

87-89

B+

84-86

B

80-83

B-

77-79

C+

74-76

C

70-73

C-

67-69

D+

64-66

D

60-63

D-

<59

F

Course Description                                                                                                           

This course is a foundation for studies of sociology. In this course, students gain an understanding of the sociological perspective, theories, and research methods. Students also explore culture, race, ethnicity, socialization, social interaction, deviance, social control, groups, organizations, social and gender stratification, population, and social change.

Course Topics & Objectives                                                                                             Week One: Sociology: Perspective, Theory, and Method

1. Analyze societal issues by using the sociological perspective.

1. Compare and contrast major theoretical paradigms used by sociologists.

1. Explain research methods used in sociological investigation.

Week Two: Culture, Race, and Ethnicity

1. Explain the significance of the major components of culture.

1. Recognize sources of cultural diversity.

1. Distinguish between race and ethnicity.

1. Evaluate the impact of prejudice and discrimination on various cultures.

Week Three: Socialization and Social Interaction in Everyday Life

1. Examine human development from different theoretical perspectives.

1. Discuss the importance of agents of socialization to human development.

1. Outline the effects of socialization at different stages of a person’s life.

1. Illustrate the relationship between social structure and social interaction.

1. Explain the social construction of reality.

Week Four: Groups and Organizations

1. Distinguish features of social groups from those of formal organizations.

1. Project how formal organizations might evolve in the future.

Week Five: Social and Gender Stratification

1. Describe various systems of stratification.

1. Recognize instances of stratification.

1. Discuss the impact of stratification.

Week Six: Deviance and Social Control

1. Describe factors that affect a society’s perspective of deviant behavior.

1. Analyze the effects of punishment on controlling deviant behavior.

1. Illustrate the relationship between deviance and social inequality.

Week Seven: Population, Urbanization, and Environment

1. Analyze population patterns.

1. Discuss the relationship between societies and the environment.

1. Explain trends in worldwide urbanization.

Week Eight: Social Change: Modern and Postmodern Societies

1. Describe social change and modernization.

1. Predict how modernization may affect our global future.

1. Critique the ideas of theorists of modernization.

Week Nine: Cumulative Review

1. Analyze the effects of current sociological issues.

Course Materials                                                                                                               

Macionis, J. J. (2006). Society: The basics (8th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.

Axia College’s Writing Style Handbook, available online at https://axiaecampus.phoenix.edu/Writing_Style_Handbook_AxiaUOP.pdf

Recommended Web Sites: The following are suggested Web sites that can be used as additional resources for researching information for your CheckPoints and Assignments.

Population Reference Bureau at http://www.prb.org

U.S. Census Bureau at http://www.census.gov

World Population Information at http://www.census.gov/ipc/www/idb/worldpopinfo.html

Population Connection at http://www.populationconnection.org

The World Factbook at http://www.cia.gov/cia/publications/factbook/index.html

Bureau of Labor Statistics at http://www.bls.gov

Envirolink at http://www.envirolink.org

WomenWatch at http://www.un.org/womenwatch/

Institute for Research on Poverty at http://www.irp.wisc.edu

The World Bank at http://www.worldbank.org/data

National Center for Children in Poverty at http://www.nccp.org

Institute for Policy Research at http://www.northwestern.edu/ipr/research/respoverty1.html

All electronic materials are available on your student Web site.

Point Values for Course Assignments                                                                           

Week One

CheckPoint: Sociological Research Methods

30

Discussion Questions

10

Participation

10

Week Two

CheckPoint: Culture Shock

30

Assignment: Prejudice and Discrimination Article

100

Week Three

CheckPoint: Social Construction of Reality

30

Discussion Questions

10

Participation

10

Week Four

CheckPoint: Social and Formal Groups Comparison

30

Assignment: Evolution of Formal Organizations Paper

100

Week Five

Discussion Questions

10

Participation

10

Week Six

CheckPoint: Deviant Behavior

30

Assignment: Punishment Research Paper

100

Week Seven

CheckPoint: Urbanization Trends

30

Discussion Questions

10

Participation

10

Week Eight

CheckPoint: Social Change and Modernization

30

Assignment: Future of Modernization Paper

100

Week Nine

Capstone Discussion Question

20

Participation

10

Final Project: Analyze a Sociological Issue

280

Point Total

1,000

Week One

Sociology: Perspective, Theory, and Method

1. Analyze societal issues by using the sociological perspective.

1. Compare and contrast major theoretical paradigms used by sociologists.

1. Explain research methods used in sociological investigation.

Course Assignments

1. Course Preparation

1. Read the course description and objectives.

1. Read the instructor’s biography and post your own.

1. Due Date: Day 1 (post to Chat Room Forum)

1. Readings

1. Read Appendix A

1. Read Ch. 1 of Society.

1. CheckPoint: Sociological Research Methods

1. Due Date: Day 5 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

1. Search the Online Library for an article or case study about suicide in the United States. Try key words such as “research on suicide” to narrow your search. The article must contain sufficient data on suicide for you to determine the research methods used in the article.

1. Explain the research methods (interview, survey, observation, previous data findings, etc.) used in the article, then identify the methodological orientation that best reflects the methods used in the article.

1. Refer to the tables on pp. 14 and 19 of Society to explain your answer. Your response must be 200- to 300-words. Also, cite 1 or 2 sources from the Online Library.

· Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

1. Discussion Questions

1. Discussion Question #1:

1. Due Date: Day 2 (Post to Main Forum)

1. Post your responses to these questions in a 150-300 word response:

· Read the article from The New York Times on p. 33 of Society. According to this article, the American military does not represent an accurate cross section of Americans. How would a sociologist view the reasons for the uneven representation in the military? What would a sociologist say about how society shaped Americans’ decisions to join the military? Support your answer by drawing from the sociological perspective.

1. Discussion Question #2:

1. Due Date: Day 4 (Post to Main Forum)

1. Post your responses to the following questions in a 150-300 word response:

· Study the Suicide Rates map on p. 11 of Society. How do each of the theoretical approaches to sociology explain the data on the map? Which approach best explains the data, in your opinion? Refer to the Applying Theory table on p. 14 of the text to complete this discussion question.

Weekly Reminders

Discussion Questions

Discussion question responses will not count towards the class participation requirement and will be evaluated separately.

Only posts in the Main classroom forum will count towards your class participation score.

Summary of Week 1 Deliverables

Assignment

Location

Due

 Discussion Question #1 (5 pts)

Main

Forum

Day 2

 Discussion Question #2 (5 pts)

Main

Forum

Day 4

CheckPoint: Sociological Research Methods (30 pts)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 5

Participation (10 pts)

Main

Forum

Week Two

Culture, Race, and Ethnicity

1. Explain the significance of the major components of culture.

1. Recognize sources of cultural diversity.

1. Distinguish between race and ethnicity.

1. Evaluate the impact of prejudice and discrimination on various cultures.

Course Assignments

1. Readings

1. Read Ch. 2 & Ch. 11 of Society.

1. CheckPoint: Culture Shock

Due Date: Day 4 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

Resources: Ch. 2 and the Global Sociology box on p. 39 of Society

Read the Global Sociology box on p. 39 in the text, then respond to the following questions in 200- to 300-words:

If you were visiting and studying the Yanomamo, describe what you would have done to prepare yourself for possible culture shock.

Describe a personal experience you have had where you experienced culture shock. What components of culture (listed on pg. 39-44 in our book) were you shocked by?

Explain how understanding the major components of culture is important in a situation such as the one you or Napoleon Chagnon experienced.

· Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

1. Assignment: Prejudice and Discrimination Article

1. Due Date: Day 7 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

1. Imagine you are going on a 6-month expedition to a foreign country to experience the diversity of this country and study the affect of prejudice and discrimination within this country. While you are there, you journal your experiences and then write an article that will be published in a travel magazine.

Choose a foreign country in which there has been well-documented instances of discrimination against certain races or cultures such as:

India: the Dalits and Adivasis

Bosnia: the Muslims and Croats

South Africa: the Coloureds or Black Africans

Indonesia: the Chinese

Rwanda: the Batwa

You can choose from the above list or you may submit a request to the instructor to research another country. Submit your request by Day 4 (continued on next page…)

1. Write a 1,050- to 1,750-word article for the travel magazine with a focus on the affect of prejudice and discrimination on various cultures within the country you have chosen to visit. Cite 3 to 5 sources; at least two must come from the Online Library. Try search terms such as “cultures in (country),” “discrimination in (country),” “ethnic groups in (country),” etc. You may also refer to the Recommended Web Sites list in the Electronic Resources section at the beginning of this syllabus for additional sources.

Note: Sources other than those from the Online Library or the Recommended Web Sites list must be approved by the instructor.

1. Include the following in your article:

2. A description of the various cultures as well as the races and ethnicities that exist within this country

2. A clear differentiation between race and ethnicity

2. Examples of discrimination against a culture, race, or ethnic group in this country and an explanation of why the discrimination exists

2. A description of the ways the discrimination has affected the people of this country and conditions that have resulted from the discrimination such as segregation, political unrest, poverty, or war

1. Format your paper according to APA standards.

· Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

Weekly Reminders

Summary of Week 2 Deliverables

Assignment

Location

Due

CheckPoint: Culture Shock (30 pts.)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 4

Assignment: Prejudice and Discrimination Article (100 pts)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 7

Week Three

Socialization and Social Interaction in Everyday Life

1. Examine human development from different theoretical perspectives.

1. Discuss the importance of agents of socialization to human development.

1. Outline the effects of socialization at different stages of a person’s life.

1. Illustrate the relationship between social structure and social interaction.

1. Explain the social construction of reality.

1.

Course Assignments

1. Readings

1. Read Ch. 3 & Ch. 4 of Society.

1. CheckPoint: Social Construction of Reality

1. Due Date: Day 5 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

1. Resources: Ch. 4 of Society

1. Compose a 200- to 300-word response addressing the following questions:

15. Describe your social status as you see it. For example, if you have a job, is your status at work different than it is in your peer groups? Is your status in school different than it is in your family? Explain the differences in how you interact with people at work and school or with friends and family. You may use any examples from your experience.

15. Consider how your social status influences your view of the world. Provide an example from your personal experience of how you have shaped your own reality through social interaction.

· Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

1. Discussion Questions

1. Discussion Question #1:

1. Due Date: Day 2 (Post to Main Forum)

1. Post your responses to these questions in a 150-300 word response:

· Discuss the stages of human development, as explained by the theories presented in Society by answering the following questions:

0. Which agents of socialization are most important at certain stages of human development? For example, discuss how the family is important to moral development or how peer groups are important to personality development.

0. Which theoretical perspective best supports your viewpoint?

1. Discussion Question #2:

1. Due Date: Day 4 (Post to Main Forum)

1. Post your responses to the following questions in a 150-300 word response:

· Choose a family member or someone you know well who has experienced most adult life stages, such as a parent, grandparent, or an older brother or sister. Describe examples of how socialization occurred at different stages of this person’s life. For example, draw from stories about your parents or grandparents or memories of a sibling or cousin. What is your opinion about how socialization affected this person?

Weekly Reminders

Discussion Questions

Discussion question responses will not count towards the class participation requirement and will be evaluated separately.

Only posts in the Main classroom forum will count towards your class participation score.

Summary of Week 3 Deliverables

Assignment

Location

Due

 Discussion Question #1 (5 pts)

Main

Forum

Day 2

 Discussion Question #2 (5 pts)

Main

Forum

Day 4

CheckPoint: Social Construction of Reality (30 pts)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 5

Participation (10 pts)

Main

Forum

Week Four

Groups and Organizations

· Distinguish features of social groups from those of formal organizations.

· Project how formal organizations might evolve in the future.

Course Assignments

1. Readings

· Read Ch. 5 of Society.

2. CheckPoint: Social and Formal Groups Comparison

· Due Date: Day 4 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

· Resources: Ch. 5 of Society

· Compose a 200- to 300-word response to the following:

· Describe a social group and a formal organization that you are currently part of or were a part of in the past.

· Review the categories in the Summing Up table on p. 121 in the text.

· Using the categories in the table, outline the main differences between the social group and the formal organization to which you belong. For example, explain how each group or organization establishes membership or describe how leadership is exhibited in each group.

Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

3. Assignment: Evolution of Formal Organizations Paper

· Due Date: Day 7 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

· Resources: Ch. 5 of Society

Review the following scenario: You have just become the CEO of a formal organization in the United States that has a conventional, bureaucratic organizational structure, as described in Figure 5-5 on p. 126 of Society. After seeing how the organization runs, you have decided that it would be best if your organization adopted a flexible organizational structure. You need to write a proposal to the Board to go ahead with the changes.

· Write a 1,050- to 1,750-word proposal summarizing your research results and cite 2 to 4 sources from the Online Library.

Note: Sources other than those from the Online Library or the Recommended Web Sites list need to be approved by the instructor.

· Address the following areas in your proposal to the board:

· Give Them a Little History: Explain how formal organizations have evolved over the past century. What differences were there in organizations a century ago, compared to today’s organizations? What are the current trends in formal organizations? (continued on next page…)

· Summarize the Proposed Change : Review the characteristics in the Summing Up table on p. 121 in the text, and describe how each of the seven characteristics for your formal organization must evolve or change in order to become more open and flexible. For example, how will activities or relationships need to change?

· Back Up Your Proposal: Locate 2 to 4 articles or case studies in the Online Library that discuss future trends in formal organizations and predict whether these trends are likely to take place in the future. Explain your reasoning for each of the predictions.

· Provide a Prediction: Make an overall prediction based on your research results: how are formal organizations, like the one you are now running, likely to evolve in the future?

· Format your paper according to APA standards.

· Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

Weekly Reminders

Summary of Week 4 Deliverables

Assignment

Location

Due

CheckPoint: Social and Formal Groups Comparison (30 pts.)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 4

Assignment: Evolution of Formal Organizations Paper (100 pts)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 7

Week Five

Social and Gender Stratification

· Describe various systems of stratification.

· Recognize instances of stratification.

· Discuss the impact of stratification.

Course Assignments

1. Readings

1. Read Ch. 8 & Ch. 10 of Society.

2. Discussion Questions

1. Discussion Question #1:

1. Due Date: Day 2 (Post to Main Forum)

1. Post your responses to these questions in a 150-300 word response:

· What are some ways in which American society is stratified? What do you think the affect is on society when groups are stratified?

1. Discussion Question #2:

1. Due Date: Day 4 (Post to Main Forum)

1. Post your responses to the following questions in a 150-300 word response:

· Provide at least two specific examples from your personal experiences that demonstrate stratification. For example, describe where you have observed stratification in the workplace, the media, home, or school. What were the consequences of stratification in these examples?

Weekly Reminders

Discussion Questions

Discussion question responses will not count towards the class participation requirement and will be evaluated separately. Only posts in the Main classroom forum will count towards your class participation score.

Summary of Week 5 Deliverables

Assignment

Location

Due

 Discussion Question #1 (5 pts)

Main

Forum

Day 2

 Discussion Question #2 (5 pts)

Main

Forum

Day 4

Participation (10 pts)

Main

Forum

Week Six

Deviance and Social Control

· Describe factors that affect a society’s perspective of deviant behavior.

· Analyze the effects of punishment on controlling deviant behavior.

· Illustrate the relationship between deviance and social inequality.

Course Assignments

1. Readings

· Read Ch. 7 of Society.

2. CheckPoint: Deviant Behavior

· Due Date: Day 4 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

· Resources: Ch. 7 of Society

· Compose a 200- to 300-word response to the following:

· Provide an example of a human behavior that is considered deviant in one society, but is not considered deviant in others. What are the factors that have contributed to this society's perspective of the deviant behavior? Why does this society consider the behavior to be deviant but other societies do not?

· When a crime is committed by someone who has a powerful status in this society, how is their deviant behavior handled in comparison to someone who has less power in society?

Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

3. Assignment: Punishment Research Paper

Statistics show that there is a high rate of criminal recidivism in the United States. This raises the question, “Does punishment deter crime?

· Due Date: Day 7 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

· Resources: Ch. 7 of Society and the Online Library

· Research the affects of the four types of punishment—retribution, deterrence, rehabilitation, and societal protection—in relation to today’s American society, as outlined in the Summing Up table on p. 182. Try search terms such as “effects of retribution on American society.”

· Write a 1,050- to 1,750-word paper that summarizes your research results and addresses the following questions:

· Which type of punishment deters crime most effectively?

· Do the consequences of punishment provide any benefits for criminals and society?

· Format your paper according to APA standards (continued on next page)

· Cite 3 to 5 sources; at least two must come from the Online Library. You may refer to the Recommended Web Sites list in the Electronic Resources section at the beginning of this syllabus for additional sources.

Note: Sources other than those from the Online Library or the Recommended Web Sites list need to be approved by the instructor.

· Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

Weekly Reminders

Summary of Week 6 Deliverables

Assignment

Location

Due

CheckPoint: Deviant Behavior (30 pts.)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 4

Assignment: Punishment Research Paper (100 pts)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 7

Week Seven

Population, Urbanization, and Environment

· Analyze population patterns.

· Discuss the relationship between societies and the environment.

· Explain trends in worldwide urbanization.

Course Assignments

1. Readings

· Read Ch. 15 of Society.

2. CheckPoint: Urbanization Trends

· Due Date: Day 5 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

· Resources: Ch. 15 of Society and the Online Library

· Compose a 200- to 300-word response to the following:

· Explain urban growth trends in the world’s poorest countries. What causes urbanization in poor countries?

· Choose a major city in a poor, developing country and research how urbanization has occurred in this city. Try search terms such as “history of urbanization in (name of city).”

· Discuss the statistical data and the implications of the urbanization of your chosen city.

· Cite 2- to 3-sources from the Online Library in your written response. You may also refer to the Recommended Web Sites list in the Electronic Resources section at the beginning of this syllabus for additional sources.

Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

3. Discussion Questions

1. Discussion Question #1:

1. Due Date: Day 2 (Post to Main Forum)

1. Post your responses to these questions in a 150-300 word response:

· Study the map 15-1 on p. 421 of Society. Looking at the data on the map, what patterns do you see?

Now, consider the following statistic: The United Nations predicts that by 2025 wealthy societies will grow by 57 million people, while poor societies will grow by 1.7 billion people. What are the possible reasons for this growth pattern? What are the consequences of this growth pattern?

1. Discussion Question #2:

1. Due Date: Day 4 (Post to Main Forum)

1. Post your responses to the following questions in a 150-300 word response:

· Do you think ancient societies were as concerned about the environment as modern societies are today? Do you think they took care of the environment better than we do or did they also contribute to the destruction of the environment as some societies do today?

Weekly Reminders

Discussion Questions

Discussion question responses will not count towards the class participation requirement and will be evaluated separately.

Only posts in the Main classroom forum will count towards your class participation score.

Summary of Week 7 Deliverables

Assignment

Location

Due

 Discussion Question #1 (5 pts)

Main

Forum

Day 2

 Discussion Question #2 (5 pts)

Main

Forum

Day 4

CheckPoint: Urbanization Trends (30 pts)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 5

Participation (10 pts)

Main

Forum

Week Eight

Social Change: Modern and Postmodern Societies

· Describe social change and modernization.

· Predict how modernization may affect our global future.

· Critique the ideas of theorists of modernization.

Course Assignments

1. Readings

· Read Ch. 16 of Society

2. CheckPoint: Social Change and Modernization

· Due Date: Day 4 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

· Resources: Ch. 16 of Society

· Compose a 200- to 300-word response to the following:

· Define social change. What are the four key features of social change? Provide four examples of social movements, current or past, and describe the key features of each movement.

· Define modernization. What are the four key features of modernization? Provide four examples of modernization and describe the key features in each example.

Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

3. Assignment: Future of Modernization Paper

· Due Date: Day 7 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

· Write a 1,050- to 1,750-word paper addressing the following questions:

· How does modernization manifest itself in U.S. society? Use one of the modern theorists introduced in Ch. 16 of Society as a basis for your response.

· Is modernization likely to continue in the U.S.? Explain your answer.

· Is modernization a world-wide trend?

· What are the consequences of modernization?

· Which theorist best reflects your perceptions of modernization?

· Research the Online Library for information to support your answers. Try search terms such as “modernization trends” or “consequences of modernization.”

· Format your paper according to APA standards.

· Cite 3- to 5-sources; at least two must come from the Online Library. You may also refer to the Recommended Web Sites list in the Electronic Resources section at the beginning of this syllabus for additional sources.

Note: Sources other than those from the Online Library or the Recommended Web Sites list need to be approved by the instructor. (continued on next page…)

· Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

Weekly Reminders

Summary of Week 8 Deliverables

Assignment

Location

Due

CheckPoint: Social Change and Modernization (30 pts.)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 4

Assignment: Future of Modernization Paper (100 pts)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 7

Week Nine

Cumulative Review

· Analyze the effects of current sociological issues.

Course Assignments

1. Readings

· Read Appendix A.

2. Capstone Discussion Question

1. Due Date: Day 2 (Post to Main Forum)

Post your responses to the following questions in a 200-300 word response:

· Which topics or concepts interested you most in this course? How might you apply them to your life? Were there any topics you would like to explore further? Discuss why they were meaningful to you.

3. Final Project: Analyze a Sociological Issue

In this course you have learned about many different kinds of social problems and controversial issues in societies around the world and in the United States, such as poverty, social inequality, race and cultural discrimination, gender stratification, environmental damage, population growth, and urbanization.

· Due Date: Day 7 (post to Assignments section of eCampus)

· Resources: Ch. 1-5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 15, & 16 of Society

· Write a 1,750- to 2,450-word paper examining the affect of a current social problem on a particular social group. You may choose a social problem and social group from the Suggested Social Problems and Social Groups List in Appendix A, or you may research a social problem and social group that is not in the list. However, if you choose your own, you must submit a request to the instructor by Week Four.

· Refer to Appendix A for specific guidelines on how you may work on your final project throughout the course.

· Format the paper according to APA standards.

· Cite 3 to 5 sources; at least two should come from the Online Library. You may also refer to the Recommended Web Sites list in the Electronic Resources section at the beginning of this syllabus for additional sources.

Note: Sources other than those from the Online Library or the Recommended Web Sites list need to be approved by the instructor.

· Submit your paper to the Assignments section of eCampus. Your paper must be submitted as a Microsoft® Word document.

Weekly Reminders

Discussion Questions

Discussion question responses will not count towards the class participation requirement and will be evaluated separately.

Only posts in the Main classroom forum will count towards your class participation score.

Summary of Week 9 Deliverables

Assignment

Location

Due

Capstone Discussion Question #1 (20 pts)

Main Forum

Day 2

Final Project: Analyze a Sociological Issue (280 pts)

Assignments section of eCampus

Day 7

Participation (10 pts)

Main Forum

SOC 120/All discussion question/Discussion question week 1.docx

Week 1 DQ 1 

Please post a 150-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.  The due date for this Discussion Question is Week 1, Day 2.

         Post your response to the following: Read the article from The New York Times on p. 33 in the text.  According to this article, the American military does not represent an accurate cross section of Americans.  How would a sociologist view the reasons for the uneven representation in the military?  What would a sociologist say about how society shaped Americans’ decisions to join the military? Support your answer by drawing from the sociological perspective.

 I must admit that before reading the article in the New York Times, I don't believe I have ever given much thought about the whole concept of sociology and the role it plays in society. With regard to the American military not representing an accurate cross section of Americans; I believe there are many different ways to analyze why this is. However, from a sociological perspective, the sociologist will more likely examine this through the general pattern in people's behavior, or the factor(s) that help to shape or guide these behaviors. In this case, I believe sociologist would view the reason for this uneven representation as purely economics. People are not necessarily enlisting in the military for just patriotic reasons, or simply following in the footsteps of fathers and grandfathers. The reality is, the military has essentially become a magnet for people who simply want to raise their socioeconomic standards. Sociologists may say one of the ways in which society shapes people's decision to join the military is by selling the idea that anyone can achieve the "American dream" through the many benefits the military provides. 

Week 1 DQ 2

Please post a 150-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.  The due date for this Discussion Question is Week 1, Day 4.

         Study the Suicide Rates map on p. 11 in the text.  How do each of the theoretical approaches to sociology explain the data on the map?  Which approach best explains the data, in your opinion? Refer to the Applying Theory table on p. 14 in the text to complete this discussion question

As the map indicates, population size and density seem to impact people's lives as it plays a significant role in suicide rates in certain states. Structural-functional approach embraces the theory that society is system of interelated parts that is relatively stable. Social function and dysfunction are factors that influence or shape interaction among people in society; which essentially means that what may work for one group may not necessarily work for another. The map shows that higher rates of suicide occurs in states that have lower population density.  I believe Structural-functional approach best explain the data. Social-conflict approach has to do with the inequalities that exist in society. The more affluent will do anything to retain a certain lifetstyle, while the less fortunate will consistently try to achieve a better socioeconomic status. The map seems to indicate lower suicide rates in areas where people are more affluent. Symbolic-interaction approach is concern with an ongoing series of interactions among people in society. interaction among people is essential, as the map seem to indicate less suicide rates in more densely populated areas. One factor that may account for lower suicide rates may have to do with the fact people tend to cope better when they have more access to different coping methods and  support  strategies.

SOC 120/All discussion question/Discussion question week 2.docx

 Week 3 DQ 1 

Please post a 150-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.  The due date for this Discussion Question is Week 3, Day 2.

          Post your response to the following: Discuss the stages of human development (as explained by the theories presented in the text) by answering the following questions:

-Which agents of socialization are most important at certain stages of human development?  For example, discuss how the family is important to moral development or how peer groups are important to personality development.

-Which theoretical perspective best supports your viewpoint?

I believe firmly that family is the most important agent in socialization, as it influences every stage of human development. Long before people are exposed to the influences of peer-pressure in schools, competition in work places, or interaction in society in general; family is the first form of socialization that impacts people's lives. It is the foundation that shapes people's attitudes, behaviors, values, and world views. This agent of socialization also provides identity, support, and security. Axia College (2010) cites that, "nothing is more likely to produce a happy, well-adjusted child than a loving family" (p. 71). The reality is, not all family dynamics are the same because while some may have positive influences, others can have adverse effect on people's behavior and social skills. Regardless of family background, family relationship is how children learn about how to treat others. What they learn at home about respecting and caring for others, and taking responsibility, feeds into their relationships at school, on the sports field, at work and, eventually, into society.  Axia College (2010) states that, research indicates that human behavior results mostly from nurture rather than nature. Although I believe people are born with innate instincts, I tend to believe this research, as society influences people's attitudes and behaviors. Therefore, Jean Piaget's theoretical perspective that human development reflects both biological maturation and increasing social experience best supports my viewpoint.

Axia College of University of Phoenix. (2010). Socialization: From Infancy to Old Age. Retrieved May 31, 2010, from

     Axia College, Week Three Reading, aXces, SOC/120—Sociology Course Web site.

Week 3 DQ 2

Please post a 150-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.  The due date for this Discussion Question is Week 3, Day 4.

         Post your response to the following: Choose a family member or someone you know well who has experienced most adult life stages, such as a parent, grandparent, older brother or sister.  Describe examples of how socialization occurred at different stages of this person’s life.  For example, draw from stories about your parents or grandparents or memories of a sibling or cousin.  What is your opinion about how socialization affected this person?

I choose to write about my grandfather; he was an only child raised by his mom who was an educator. His mother always stressed the importance of education and I believe she influenced his view that women, especially in my community can be more than just mothers and housewives. He became a physician, married my grandmother, and they had three daughters (my mom was the youngest). Unfortunately my grandmother died when my mom was only three years old, so she was essentially raised by my grandfather and her two older siblings. I believe that in addition to his mother's influence, the fact that he had to raise three little girls also influenced his perspective with regard to his view that educated and empowered women can have positive impact on families, communities, and society as a whole. He would always say, "when you educate a girl you change the world." The values he instill in my mom and her siblings is largely responsible for the reason they all possessed strong educational backgrounds and at a time when most women saw themselves as simple housewives, my mom and aunts believed that it was possible to balance having  a career and raising a family. I believe my grandfather's philosophy impacts the whole family as literally everyone in my family pursues higher education; I was like the only hold-out, so my grandfather would be very proud that I am finally taking this step to achieve my degree.

SOC 120/All discussion question/Discussion Questions week 5.docx

Week 5 DQ 1 

Please post a 150-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.  The due date for this Discussion Question is Week 5, Day 2.

          Post your response to the following:  What are some ways in which American society is stratified?  What do you think the impact is on society when groups are stratified?

Unlike countries like India that has a closed caste system, the United States has more of an open class system that encourages social mobility. However, social stratification in American Society is not clearly determined or defined. Most Americans believe in a three class society; rich, poor and middle class. The reality is, the American society is more diverse with more complex differences among people. Some of the main determinants that makes the American social class are education, wealth, occupation, and income. Social class creates a hierarchy and identity for the people of each class. I believe stratification can have negative impact on society because separation of the classes can breed prejudice and discrimination. These prejudices are not only aimed at people outside each class, it also exist among people within each class. Social stratification seems to affect just about every area of people's lives, it can affect a child's acceptance into certain schools and can even determine the amount people pay for their cars and houses. 

Week 5 DQ 2

Please post a 150-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.  The due date for this Discussion Question is Week 5, Day 4.

         Post your response to the following: Give at least two specific examples from your personal experiences that demonstrate stratification.  For example, describe where you have observed stratification in the workplace, the media, home, or school.  What were the consequences of stratification in these examples?

My personal observation with regard to stratification occurred in the workplace as well as in my school district. I recalled a Pakistani coworker whose life was affected significantly by his social standing from his country of origin. My coworker came from a wealthy family background, which makes him part of a Pakistani caste system that does not necessarily embrace the concept of class ascendancy. Basically, his family opposes marriage to anyone below their social class; and in an effort to retain family wealth, discourages marriage outside the family. He was forced to choose between marrying his American fiance and his own cousin. Consequently, he broke his engagement, returned to his country, and marry his cousin due to family pressures and family honor. I also observed stratification in some school districts here in Maryland. There were public outcries that schools in more affluent neighborhoods have better teaching standards compared to schools in poorer neighborhoods. In an effort to promote equal opportunity in public education and class interaction, bussing programs were implemented to transport children to schools miles away from their home districts. However, this strategy did not last very long due to financial issues. Financially strapped schools cite that bussing programs take funding away from other educational priorities.

SOC 120/All discussion question/Discussion Questions week 7.docx

 Week 7 DQ 1 

Please post a 150-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.  The due date for this Discussion Question is Week 7, Day 2.

          Study the map 15-1 on p. 421 in the text.  Looking at the data on the map, what patterns do you see?

         Now, consider the following statistic: The United Nations predicts that by 2025 wealthy societies will grow by 57 million people, while poor societies will grow by 1.7 billion people.  What are the possible reasons for this growth pattern?  What are the consequences of this growth pattern?

In viewing the data on the map, the pattern indicates that the lowest growth rate occurs in the wealthiest countries in the world, which include United States, Canada, and European countries at one percent. Latin American and Asian countries has slightly higher growth rate at approximately 1.6 percent; and African countries has the highest growth rate, as high as three percent. The United Nation states that by 2025, wealthy societies will grow by 57 million people, while poor societies will grow by 1.7 billion people. Possible reasons for lower growth pattern in the wealthiest societies may have to do with the fact that higher proportion of men and women are in the work force; the high cost of raising children; the use of contraceptives and abortion; and people waiting to get married much later in life. Possible reasons for higher growth pattern for poor societies may have to do with access to advanced medical technology supplied by wealthier countries. Although this helps to lower infant mortality rates and overall death rates, birth rates remain extremely high in poor countries.  Unlike their richer counterparts, women in poorer countries usually are not as educated, and they marry at a younger age with men as breadwinners. Moreover, there is little to no use of contraceptives. Axia College (2010) states that, the issue here is to find ways to control birth rates as successfully as it prevents or lower the death rates in these poorer countries. I believe that improving the status of women, empowering them through education will go a long way in controlling population growth. The consequences of this growth pattern will cause underpopulation in wealthier countries with fewer people to take care of the growing elderly population. In poorer countries, increased global poverty will continue to rise.

Axia College of University of Phoenix. (2010). Population, Urbanization, and Environment. Retrieved June 28, 2010,

     From Axia College, Week Seven Reading, aXces, SOC/120—Sociology Skills Course Web site.

 

Week 7 DQ 2

Please post a 150-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.  The due date for this Discussion Question is Week 7, Day 4.

         Post your response to the following: Do you think ancient societies were as concerned about the environment as modern societies are today?  Do you think they took care of the environment better than we do, or did they also contribute to the destruction of the environment as some societies do today?

I believe ancient societies had concerns for the environment but not in the way we do today. In their wildest imagination, they could not forsee the environmental issues we face today. Ancient societies concerns were more out of reverence for nature, as their spirituality and lifestyle were inextricably linked to the land and its natural environment. This factor made them great stewards of this planet. Nomadic lifestyle to a certain extent contributes to the destruction of the environment, as people would simply use the land and natural resources then move on to more fertile areas. However, in general, one could say that ancient societies took care of the environment better than we do. Even before the advent of agrarian culture that embraces the idea that if you take care of the land, the land will take care of you; ancient societies' way of life seems to meet the needs of their generation without threatening the environmental legacy of future generation. 

SOC 120/Assignments/week 2 Assignment Prejudice and Discrimination Article.docx

Prejudice and Discrimination Article 7

Running head: PREJUDICE AND DISCRIMINATION ARTICLE

Prejudice and Discrimination Article

Dawnette Dunkley

Axia College of University of Phoenix

Prejudice and Discrimination Article

For some people, the mere mention of the country, Bosnia, brings to mind the ethnic cleansing of Bosnian Muslims by former Serbian President Slobodan Milosevic. For centuries, Bosnia has had its share of volatile relations both among its local diverse groups; Serbs, Croats, and Bosnian Muslims as well as with outside forces. However, for years, these three ethnic groups managed to coexist peacefully until the politics of Milosevic during the 1990s, stirred centuries of latent mistrusts, marking the beginning of his ethnic cleansing campaign and the atrocities committed against Bosnian Muslims. Today, Bosnia may appear to be relatively peaceful; however, it is incumbent upon anyone traveling to this country to exercise caution and conduct thorough background research into the complexities of this nation. In addition to political differences, ethnicity and religion are sensitive aspects of the Bosnian culture, as their national identity is tied closely to their political, ethnic and religious identities. Therefore; the aim of this paper is to provide a description of the races and ethnicities as well as the various cultures within the country of Bosnia. Additionally, it will make a clear differentiation between its race and ethnicity, and provide examples of discrimination certain ethnic groups face in this country. Furthermore, it will explore the reasons behind these discriminations as well as explore the consequences of these discriminations as they affect the Bosnian population.

Besides standard pre-travel information that people gather before traveling to other foreign countries that include visa requirement and immunization; it is imperative that people also take certain measures to ensure safety. With a country such as Bosnia; however, it will be essential to have knowledge of its history, language, culture, politics, and its racial and ethnic makeup as well. Knowledge of these different components within Bosnia will help visitors avoid miscommunications, misinterpretations, and promote better interaction with the different ethnic groups within the country.

The three main racial and ethnic groups in Bosnia are the Bosnian Muslims, the Serbs, and the Croats. One simply cannot discuss race or ethnicity within Bosnia without discussing their respective religious ties. The Bosnian Muslims make up the majority; in fact, traces of the Turkish civilization still reflects in their culture and serves as a reminder of centuries of Turkish dominance in the Balkan region. Residue of past conflict between Bosnian Muslims and Serbs still exist today, as a result Bosnian Muslims are more likely to identify themselves in opposition to the Serbs and resent their long-standing dominance of the region. On the other hand, Serbs tend to identify more with their Serb neighbors to the south and less with Bosnia and primarily consist of Eastern Orthodox. Croats are primarily Roman Catholic and prefer to distinguish themselves from both Bosnians and Serbs (Bakke, Cao, O’Loughlin, & Ward, 2009).

Even with the differences that exist among these different ethnic groups; somehow they managed to share a peaceful coexistence, it was not uncommon to find intermarriages and mixed communities. However, after Yugoslavian President, Slobodan Milosevic came into power in 1989, his extremist political views managed to stir up mistrust that lay dormant for many years among these ethnic groups (Bakke, Cao, O’Loughlin, & Ward, 2009).

By 1992, Milosevic launched a campaign that supports the ethnic cleansing of Bosnian Muslims. This type of racial discrimination led to political unrest, poverty, and war, which caused the deaths of millions and left many people wounded and homeless. With the backing of Milosevic, the Serbs were responsible for most of the persecution against the Bosnian Muslims; however, the Croats were also complicit in this atrocity (Bosnian Civil War, 2008).

The main reason for much of this discrimination arose out of political differences after Bosnian Muslims and Croats came together to make a referendum, declaring Bosnian’s independence from Serbia. Even though the world recognizes Bosnia’s independence and the Muslim president assured the Serbs that Bosnian Muslims would never violate their rights; the Serbs refused to cooperate (Mahmutćehajić, 1999). The Bosnian Muslims were no match to the Serbs’ more superior military, so with the help of Milosevic, the Serbs drove the Muslims out of both eastern and northern Bosnia. With the use of brutal force, the Serbs committed drastic human rights violation against the Muslims. Their tactics included destroying entire villages and terrorizing civilians; they managed to accomplish this by systematically raping the women and killing the men in the villages. This atrocity has left permanent scars on this nation; for this reason, visitors to this country need to be mindful of the religious, ethnic, and political differences of the people, and exercise caution in areas where tension may still exists.

Subsequently, after the Serbs completely decimated the Bosnian Muslims, both the presidents of Croatia and Serbia made an agreement to split the country of Bosnia between them; this decision only served to increase violence between Muslim and Croats as well as between Serbs and Muslim. This escalation in violence caused the United Nation to intervene, but with not much success. Cities such as Srebrenica and Sarajevo were under siege; food, fuel, water, and other necessities were in short supply. Some people chose to flee but would usually end in refugee camps, with terrible living conditions. Others were sent to Serb-operated concentration camps where tortures, beatings, and mass murders were not uncommon (Mahmutćehajić, 1999).

These unabated fights among ethnic groups continued and it was only after approximately 68 civilians were killed by a Serb attack at a Sarajevo market that the united Nation decided to use extreme force to stop the violence. Consequently, in addition to NATO forces maintaining the peace, in 1995, through the Dayton Peace Accord, the boundaries of Bosnia-Herzegovina reverted to where they used to be before the war. Dividing in two parts; the Muslims and Croats govern the Federation of Bosnia and Herzegovina and the Serbs the Republic of Bosnia and Herzegovina. Although this agreement managed to facilitate peace among these warring factions, the reality is, this peace agreement is very tenuous, as NATO forces still have significant presence in Bosnia (Mahmutćehajić, 1999).

Conclusion

In conclusion, today, as these ethnic groups manage to live in relative calm; it is even more important that visitors to this country understand and demonstrate respect to the ethnic, religious, and political differences of the people in the region, as the people continue to make efforts to move past the Yugoslav civil war. The undercurrent of tension among these groups makes it essential that visitors to this country demonstrate sensitivity and avoid offending any particular group out of indifference or sheer ignorance.

References

Bakke, K., Cao, X., O'Loughlin, J., & Ward, M. (2009). Social distance in Bosnia-Herzegovina

And the North Caucasus Region of Russia: Inter and Intra-Ethnic Attitudes and Identities.

Nations & Nationalism, 15(2), 227-253. doi:10.1111/j.1469-8129.2009.00363.x.

Bosnian Civil War, 1992-1995. (2008). Background Information Summaries, 1. Retrieved

from International Security & Counter Terrorism Reference Center database.

Mahmutćehajić, R. (1999). Changing the State of Knowledge. Sociological Imagination

(2/3), 167-175. Retrieved from SocINDEX with Full Text database

.

.

National Identity

SOC 120/Assignments/week 4 assignment Evolution of Formal Organizations Paper.docx

Evolution of Formal Organizations Paper 6

Running head: EVOLUTION OF FORMAL ORGANIZATIIONS PAPER

Evolution of Formal Organizations Paper

Dawnette Dunkley

University of Phoenix

Sociology--120

Instructor: Loren Butler

Evolution of Formal Organizations Paper

For the last century and through successive generations, formal organization, with its more conventional and bureaucratic structure, play significant roles in most working environment; however, in recent decades, many formal organizations are acknowledging the value in adopting a more flexible organizational structure. One factor that contributes to this evolution has to do with the changing nature of work itself, as the United States economy changes from industrial to post-industrial production. Postindustrial production involves less back-breaking work with heavy machinery in factories and warehouses and more efficient work with the aid of computers and other modern technologies. Even with the progress in working conditions, the rigidity and the pyramid-like structure associated with formal organizations continue to have major drawbacks. The formal organizational structure helps to complete effectively certain tasks, but lacks the creativity necessary to keep up with changing trends as well as to compete on a global scale. For formal organization to evolve, it has to embrace certain characteristics to become more flexible. These characteristics may include modifications in its activities, hierarchy, norms, membership criteria, relationships, communication, and focus. Therefore, in addition to providing information on the evolution of formal organizations; the purpose of this paper is to write a proposal to the Board of an organization that uses currently the bureaucratic, conventional organizational structure. This proposal will explore current trends as well as make a prediction with regard to future trends in formal organization. Therefore, the aim is to convince Board members that structural changes in formal organization will facilitate a more open, flexible, and productive working environment.

Formal organization has come a long way from the industrial era of working in factories and warehouses to today’s fast track information age. For centuries, formal organizations would operate under the same bureaucratic and conventional traditions passed down throughout generations. Inasmuch as these traditions provide structure and help businesses to function effectively; the hierarchy and rigidity that exist in formal organization are largely responsible for inefficiencies that leave little or no room for growth or improvement. Unlike modern businesses that function more efficiently through advances in technology; businesses in the industrial era had little to no access to computers, voicemail, networking, or conference calls to allow smoother business transactions (Gould & Howson, 2009). Instead, people had to travel to attend face-to-face meetings that only served to incur costs and waste time. Additionally, the inability to store and share conveniently information proved to be counterproductive.

The dawn of the information age gave way to different ways in which businesses complete tasks; as computers, telephone systems, and other modern technologies allow workers easier access to people and information. However, even with these technologies in place, some businesses still cling to old conventional bureaucratic standards and policies that discourage creative freedom and free-flow of ideas.

Bureaucracy is more task-oriented and uses an impersonal approach, placing more emphasis on rules and regulations and less emphasis on peoples’ concerns. Formal organizations use a pyramid model in business operation that defines clearly the chain of command for each employee. These businesses would usually have individuals in highly specialized positions with different responsibilities (Gould, 2009). Hierarchy includes top executives and CEOs at the very top, middle management act as supervisors, and rank and file workers answer to supervisors. Workers at the bottom usually do not have much inputs in business operations and usually reap little to no benefits; and in efforts to maximize production, personal interactions are kept at a minimum (Williams, 2007). Today, the tasks may appear be easier to accomplish; however, the paradox of bureaucracy makes it essential to look at new and creative ways to operate businesses more efficiently.

Many people may argue the success of bureaucracy in business and to a certain extent this is true, as the strict organizational model in bureaucracy is necessary in most fast-food chain and retail businesses. However, a majority of businesses are increasingly changing perspectives as they acknowledge the benefits in using a more flexible organizational structure. In fact, Williams (2007) believes that informal relationships in business provide a competitive edge for businesses over formal management structure.

Proposal

As Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of this company, I propose for the Board to consider adopting a more flexible organizational structure that uses more modern trends in conducting business to increases productivity. Yes, the conventional, bureaucratic practices have served its purpose and will continue to play a part in organizing businesses; however, times are changing and with that, this company has to evolve to remain viable and competitive. Part of this evolution means this company has to move away from the old pyramid-like structure that exists in this conventional, bureaucratic organization, and embrace the new flattened structure called flexible organization that focuses on creativity.

This flexible organizational structure sets new standards for the modern working environment; its focus is more people-oriented, it will encourage creative freedom among its workers, and uses competitive teams, working toward a common goal. The characteristics of most large, formal organizations are increasingly evolving to represent those of much smaller primary groups. In terms of its norms; instead of strict rules and regulations, this flexible organization will establish more general or informal guidelines.

With regard to activities, workers within this flexible organization will share broad knowledge of business operation; this will facilitate a level playing field among workers with fewer levels in hierarchy. Membership criteria in this type of working environment will place less importance on specialized people but will typically hires people of all races not just for their skills but for their ability to generate new ideas. Bottom line is, this proposal is about embracing the theory that purports that empowered and valued employees performs more optimally for the best interest of the business. This essentially means taking advantage of each individual’s talent as well as putting together teams to come up with the best solutions. In terms of relationships and communications, this open, flexible organization will have a friendly atmosphere, as relationships among coworkers will become more primary as oppose to secondary (Trends That Will Influence Workplaces, 1994). Employees of this company will realize that each person is an important part of the team, and view each other not simply as competitors but as valued colleagues. Ultimately, allowing employees the freedom to voice opinions and concerns will foster an environment that promotes innovative thoughts and ideas, as a result, creativity will become just as imperative as organizations.

Prediction

A few trends that influence formal organizations include the global economy and its demands, technology, and training personnel. Global economy will continue to affect the operation of most businesses. Improvements in performance in most businesses will depend greatly on the organization’s ability to remain flexible as it reorganizes and reengineers its work methods to compete in an international marketplace (Bailey, 1991). With regard to technology; the way in which businesses create, use, store, and share information are technological trends that will affect significantly business productivity. Computers and hand-held devices are also evolving extremely quickly; therefore, based on research I predict that highly trained, technologically knowledgeable employees will become essential for future growth of this company.

Conclusion

In conclusion, conventional, bureaucratic structure in formal organizations has been a part of most businesses from the industrial era to present-day’s technological information age. Even with current trends that allow businesses to operate more smoothly; bureaucracy continues to be a paradox. On one hand, it helps to provide structure with a clear chain of command; however, it does not promote flexibility, leaving little to no room for interpretation or creativity. Should Board members change their perspective and adopt the terms of this proposal; it will change fundamentally the way in which this company conducts business. Adopting a more flexible organizational structure for this company will not only increase productivity; it will improve morale in the workplace, promotes teamwork, and allows the company to keep up with current and future business trends.

References

Bailey, B.  (1991, July). Ask What HR Can Do for Itself. Personnel Journal, 70(7), 35. 

Retrieved June 6, 2010, from ABI/INFORM Global (Document ID: 716752).

Gould, M. (2009). Informal Relations within Bureaucracies. Informal Relations within

Bureaucracies-- Research Starters Sociology, 1-6. Retrieved June 6, 2010, from Research

Starters – Sociology database.

Gould, M., & Howson, A. (2009). Bureaucratic Surveillance. Bureaucratic Surveillance –

Research Starters Sociology, 1-6. Retrieved June 6, 2010, from Research Starters - Sociology

database.

Trends that will influence workplace learning and performance in the next five years.

(1994, May). Training & Development, 48(5), S29.  Retrieved June 6, 2010, from

ABI/INFORM Global. (Document ID: 816618).

Williams, K. (2007). Employees Turn to Informal Organization. Strategic Finance, 89(3), 17. Retrieved

June 8, 2010, from Research Starters - Sociology database.

SOC 120/Assignments/week 6 assignment Punishment Research Paper.docx

Punishment Research Paper 1

Running head: PUNISHMENT RESEARCH PAPER

Punishment Research Paper

Dawnette Dunkley

University of Phoenix

Sociology--120

Instructor: Loren Butler

Punishment Research Paper

Throughout history and in every era, American society struggles to find adequate punishments to address deviant and criminal behaviors. The reality is, punishment is an inherent part of people’s lives; it manifests itself in the way parents reprimand children, teaching them about responsibility, accountability, and consequences as well as in the way the judicial system punishes offenders. Unlike Iran that amputates systematically the arm(s) of people accused of stealing; the American justice system provides less severe ways in which to address similar offenses. In the United States, the severity of the punishment is based usually on the degree of the offense, which ranges between paying fines, probation, imprisonment, or execution. Yes, America has had its share of seemingly barbaric punishments for crimes, as its last public execution was only 73 years ago, with the public execution of Rainey-Bethea. Four different types of justification for punishment in American society include retribution, deterrence, rehabilitation, and societal protection. Even though each of these justifications for punishment helps to reduce crime rates in society, each has its share of controversy, with both advantages and drawbacks. The concept of punishment evolves overtime and garners both supporters and detractors, as proponents and opponents argue whether punishment do more harm than good. Assessment of punishment continues to be a hot button issue in American society today; therefore, the purpose of this paper is to examine the effects of each of these four types of punishments as they relate to today’s American society. Additionally, the purpose is to discuss which of these types of punishment deters crimes most effectively; furthermore, it will discuss whether consequences of punishment provide any benefits for criminals or society.

Retribution

Satisfying society’s need for retribution is the earliest form of justification for punishment. Retribution is basically moral revenge or retaliation against someone who commits a wrongful act or crime, as society makes criminals suffer as much as the suffering they inflict. Many people believe criminality upset the moral order in society and view retribution as the only means by which to exact punishment to restore moral balance. However, most opponents, including criminologists, human rights activists, and jurists believe the whole concept of retribution is simply a fancy name for revenge and it is not necessarily the best solution. In fact, Berns (2004) held that opponents dismiss and distrust retribution as a justification for punishment.

Most people believe that trust and friendship are essential elements that make up the foundation of a moral community; therefore, criminal violations of this foundation, not only affect the individual victim, it affects the whole community. For instance, a rash of murders in a community may cause both close family members of the victims and the community at large to seek retribution. Most people may believe that to restore order to this community, the punishment should fit the crime, which in this case means execution of the offender. One may argue however, if retribution is such an effective deterrent, why are there such high rate of criminal recidivism? For this reason Nussim & Tabbach (2009) cite that, although retribution helps people to avenge the wrongs committed against them; avenging the wrongs in society may not necessarily deter criminal activity. Consequently, retribution can be a deterrent factor against committing crimes, but it does not provide much benefit for criminals; however, it helps to restore moral balance to society.

Deterrence

The Enlightenment idea of the 18th century was responsible for the concept that purports that because humans have the ability to think and behave rationally; they are less likely to break the law if threat of harsh punishment outweighs the pleasure of the crime. So in response to what many perceive as harsh punishment associated with retribution, deterrence is viewed as a better alternative for discouraging criminality. As a result, milder forms of punishment like imprisonment replaced harsher punishments such as public executions and physical mutilation.

Opponents of capital punishment hold the notion that offenders do not necessarily fear death, as they do not take the time to ponder the consequences of their actions. However, proponents may argue that, but for the consequence of the death penalty; many in law enforcement would not be alive today. The knowledge of possible death penalty makes criminals less likely to murder law enforcement officers, thus reducing the murder rate (Lowe, 2008). The American justice system assesses many forms of punishment to deter crime; besides the death penalty, fear of imprisonment, probation, and paying large fines are effective reform measures in crime deterrence. Deterrence is essentially about proactive prevention rather than reactive prosecution. Both criminals and society benefit, as it makes would-be-criminals more fearful to commit crimes as they weigh the consequences of their actions; it reduces recidivism, and it acts as an additional form of protection for both law enforcement and society.

Rehabilitation

Rehabilitation has to do with implementation of programs aimed at reforming offenders to prevent recidivism. Along with recidivism, the concept of rehabilitation began in the 19th century by sociologists, who theorize that there is a connection between deviant behavior and social environment. They essentially believe that deviant behavior is learned; therefore, it is possible to reprogram or reform offenders to abide by the laws of society. Rehabilitation programs are usually done in a controlled environment such as houses of correction or reformatories (Levenson, Prescott, & D’Amora, 2010).

Recidivism continues to be an issue in today’s society and it is one contributory factor that has an effect on the crime rate in the United States. Lowenkamp, Makarios, Latessa, Lemke, & Smith (2010) research reveal that, juvenile correction programs that target high risk youth with the use of cognitive behavioral modalities and qualified staff has more effect on decreasing incidence of repeat offences. This type of punishment benefits both criminals and society; as rehabilitation provides youth and adult a different perspective that safeguard against re-offending, allowing them to become better citizens. On the other hand, society benefits as citizens can live in safer neighborhood, and decrease in crime rate means less taxpayer funding to operate prison systems (Lowenkamp et al, 2010).

Societal Protection

Societal protection is a justification of punishment used whenever rehabilitation or retribution fails to deter dangerous criminals in society. Societal protection incapacitates dangerous offenders from perpetrating more harm, temporarily through imprisonment or permanently through execution. This type of punishment is a rational approach consistently used against criminals such as serial killers, the criminally insane, and other criminals that pose a threat to society.

The issue of treating some juvenile offenders as adult in the American justice system is extremely controversial. Traditionally, the ideal of the juvenile justice system is to treat and rehabilitate young offenders. However, Tate, Reppucci, & Mulvey (1995) reports that, incarcerating some juvenile offenders in the adult criminal justice system is sometimes necessary for societal protection against dangerous and violent juvenile offenders. Like dangerous animals that need to be caged or euthanized, some people believe extremely violent and dangerous criminals should be separated from society. Opponents of the death penalty argue that death penalty is immoral and ineffective in deterring crimes, as states that perform executions has some of the highest crime rates in America. Bayat (2008) counters by stating that, the death penalty is indeed a moral act and further states that by killing, murderers forfeit their rights to life.

With regard to cost, years of long, tedious court appeals on death penalty cases are usually more expensive than imprisonment. In fact, Simon (2008) reports that, over the past two and a half decades, death penalty cases cost the state of Illinois $800 million more than cases resulting in imprisonment. Removal of violent and dangerous criminals provides no benefit for criminals, but it benefits society by providing citizen a sense of restoration of law and order. Societal protection literally protects the lives of potential victims and ultimately helps in the reduction crimes.

Conclusion

In conclusion, deterrence as a justification for punishment seems to be the most effective in deterring crime. Measures by which the American justice system assesses punishment for crimes will always be debatable. Punishments such as retribution and societal protection serve as specific and general deterrence, which demonstrate to everyone the consequences of crime. Although rehabilitation, to a certain degree helps to deter crime; its basic theory that draws connection between social environment and deviant behavior does not necessarily holds true. The truth is, deviant behavior affects every stratification of society. Yes, poverty, childhood abuse, and lack of education are circumstances that may expose individuals to crime; however, ultimately, the responsibility for choosing to be law-abiding citizen or choosing to be a criminal remains with the individual.

References

Bayat, M. Z. (2008). Capital Punishment Maintains Law and Order. Current Controversies:

Does Capital Punishment Deter Crime? Opposing Viewpoints Resource Center. Retrieved

June 25, 2010, from Thomas Gale database.

Berns, W. (2004). Retribution Is a Moral Reason for Capital Punishment. Current Controversies:

The Ethics of Capital Punishment. Opposing Viewpoints Resource Center. Retrievied June

25, 2010, from Thomas Gale database.

Levenson, J., Prescott, D., & D'Amora, D. (2010). Sex Offender Treatment. International

Journal of Offender Therapy & Comparative Criminology, 54(3), 307-326

doi:10.1177/0306624X08328752

Lowe, W. (2008). Consistent and Swift Application of the Death Penalty Reduces Murder Rates.

Current Controversies: Does Capital Punishment Deter Crimes? Opposing Viewpoints Resource

Center. Retrieved June 26, 2010, from Thomas Gale database.

Lowenkamp, C., Makarios, M., Latessa, E., Lemke, R., & Smith, P. (2010). Community

Corrections Facilities for Juvenile Offenders in Ohio. Criminal Justice Behavior, 37(6),

695-708. doi:10.1177/0093854810363721

Nussim, J., & Tabbach, A. (2009). Deterrence and avoidance. International Review of Law &

Economics, 29(4), 314-323. doi:10.1016/j.irle.2009.05.001.

Simon, P. (2008). Capital Punishment Does Not Make Nation Safer. Current Controversies:

Does Capital Punishment Deter Crime? Opposing Viewpoints Resource Center. Retrieved

June 25, 2010, from Thomas Gale database.

Tate, D., Reppucci, N., & Mulvey, E. (1995). Violent Juvenile Delinquents. Treatment

Effectiveness and Implications for Future Action. The American Psychologists, 50(9),

777-781. retrieved June 25, 2010, from MEDLINE with Full Text database.

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.

SOC 120/Assignments/week 8 assignment Future of Modernization Paper.docx

Future of Modernization Paper 1

Running head: FUTURE OF MODERNIZATION PAPER

Future of Modernization Paper

Dawnette Dunkley

University of Phoenix

Sociology--120

Instructor: Loren Butler

Future of Modernization Paper

Modernization, a concept sociologists use to describe the changing patterns set in motion by the industrial revolution. Modernization attracts many divergent views and theories and its influence on society is highly debatable. At issue is the theory of modernization that posits that cultural change, economic development, and political change are predictable patterns that go hand in hand. Regardless of people’s stance on this issue, some facts on which they can agree are that, society is always evolving, changes have good and bad consequences, and the rate of change occurs much faster, especially with the information revolution. Some theorists argue that the advent of the industrial revolution created a different type of society; one that forces developing countries to find ways to achieve similar achievements as their more affluent counterparts or be left permanently behind. The reality is, not all modernized societies have equal success in sustaining the process of modernization because of differences in politics, education, and other institutions. This paper aims to examine how modernization manifests itself in American society; it will also explore the likelihood of the continuation of modernization in the United States. Additionally, it will examine whether or not modernization is a worldwide trend and further explore the consequences of modernization. Furthermore, it will state which theorist best reflect my perception of modernization.

The industrial revolution has had profound effect on American society and most people would agree that its influence caused drastic social, economic, and institutional changes. Modernization manifests itself in American society in various ways; these include the decline of small, traditional communities; the expansion of personal choice; increase in social diversity; and orientation toward the future and a keen awareness of time. With regard to decline of small, traditional communities; for thousands of years small, rural communities in the United States were known for their cohesive characteristics. These close-knit communities revolved primarily around family, close friends, and neighbors; it was a period when interactions between people were more personal and people believed they could count on their neighbors. These types of communities helped to provide people a sense of security, purpose, identity, and solidarity (Neitz, 2009). However, one has to be careful not to over-romanticize the past because preindustrial society had its own share of problems with less choices and less of the conveniences that people take for granted today. The old traditional ways of living seem to be nonexistent today; with people traveling to rural villages and small towns to remind themselves about how much simpler life used to be.

Most of today’s population are products of generations of people who chose to migrate from rural areas to cities in search of employment, after the economy placed more emphasis on industry and less on agriculture. This move brought about the urbanization phenomenon, which is still evident today with the majority of American population living in urban areas. To a certain extent, one could say that modern society erodes many of the traditional norms and behaviors of the past. However, one may argue that one of the drawbacks of preindustrial American society is that it places more limitations on personal choices and promotes conformity; whereas, modern American society promotes individualism, allowing people control over their own personal lives.

Expansion of personal choice is another manifestation of modernization in the United States; modern American society essentially promotes a more rational worldview. Increases in impersonal bureaucracy, city growth, and exposure to people of different backgrounds created the perfect storm for diversity and forward-thinking. Unlike pre-industrial society that tends to look in the past, modern society is more oriented to look to the future; finding new and innovative ways to improve people’s lives. This manifestation of modernization is largely responsible for increasing options, providing conveniences of modern society, and the advent of today’s information revolution.

In the wake of the industrial revolution, people could not imagine some of the achievements of modern society; the moon-landing, advanced medical technology, computer, television, modes of transportation, just to name a few. This era puts information at people’s fingertips; allowing more efficient communication. Ironically, even with all the available gadgets such as telephones, computers, and hand-held devices; interactions in modern society are primarily impersonal. This gives some credence to sociologist, Ferdinand Tonnies’ theory that posits that modernization is the gradual loss of human community.

Regardless of people’s stance on the issue of modernization, it is quite safe to say that this trend will continue because people link the concept of modernity to progress and regard stability as stagnant. Moreover, the American population views progress as looking forward and much prefer to retain an American culture that reflects personal differences and innovation.

Though some countries may resist the ideology of modernization; the shrinking global community makes it harder to ignore, especially with regard to the expansion of global retail trade, which helps to make modernization a global trend. Moriarty (2007) reports that, fierce competition in global retail is on the rise. Modern retail in India grew at more than 25%; and by 12%t in both Russia and China. These trends will continue to stretch worldwide as funds from modernization saturate the markets of developing countries.

People living in this current era are part of a technologically complex society, as they bear witness to significant changes within a lifetime. Though many of the changes are extremely beneficial to society, these changes also carry serious consequences. For example, automobile, one of the most groundbreaking advancements of human technology, helps to increase economic value. However, automobiles are essentially deadly weapons that cause more deaths than atomic weapons, bombing, or guns (Wheels of death, 2009). Moreover, exhaust from automobile emission contributes to environmental problems, with the depletion of the ozone layer and global warming. Additionally, although advances in medical technology improve life expectancy, it is also responsible for overpopulation, especially in poorer countries..

Conclusion

The theorist who best reflects my perception of modernization is Ferdinand Tonnies. He acknowledges the positive aspects of modern life, but believes it came at the expense of tradition and cultural heritage. A society that holds on to positive traditions such as family values and solidarity in community; while increasing individual rights, raising living standards, and having greater tolerance of social differences would be ideal. However, that is not necessarily the reality. The reality is, modernization is here to stay and this trend will continue to be a worldwide trend. Yes, modernization has managed to revolutionize society with both good and bad consequences; and it is sad that its complexities resulted in a more isolated, materialistic, and self-centered society.

References

Moriarty, M. (2007). Growth Opportunities for Global Retailers. ICSC Research Review, 14(2),

20-26. Retrieved July 9, 2010, from Business Source Complete database.

Neitz, M. (2009). 2008 Association for the Sociology of Religion Presidential Address

Encounters in the Heartland: What Studying Rural Churches Taught Me about Working

across Differences*. Sociology of Religion, 70(4), 343-361. doi:10.1093/socrel/srp065.

Wheels of Death. (2009). New Scientist, 202(2705), 65. Retrieved July 9, 2010, from Academic Search

Complete database.

SOC 120/Assignments/week 9 final project Analyze a Sociological Issue.docx

Gender Stratification And Women in Developing Nations 1

Running head: GENDER STRATIFICATION AND WOMEN IN DEVELOPING NATIONS

Gender Stratification and Women in Developing Nations

Dawnette Dunkley

University of Phoenix

Sociology--120

Instructor: Loren Butler

Gender Stratification and Women in Developing Nations

“Rwanda's economy has risen up from the genocide and prospered greatly on the backs of our women.” These are the words of Agnes Matilda Kalibata, Rwanda’s minister of agriculture. Kalibata is one of many Rwandan women who rose from the carnage of the Rwandan genocide to become shining examples of what empowered and resilient women can do for society. The 1994 genocide responsible for the systematic killing of 800,000 Tutsis and Moderate Hutus comes to mind whenever one thinks of the African country, Rwanda. The three main ethnic groups; Tutsi, Hutu, and Twa has had a long history of social differences. However, even with these strained relationships, especially between Hutu and Tutsi, these ethnic groups manage to coexist in relative peace. Historians believe German and Belgian colonizers helped to incite violence along ethnic lines. The assassination of then president Habyalimana sparked one of the most intensive killing campaigns in human history, as extremist Hutus tried to annihilate the Tutsi tribe. Though women and young girls were victims of these killings, in addition to rapes, and mutilations; the Hutu’s targeting and mass slaughtering of Tutsi and moderate Hutu males, made these killings both genocidal and gendercidal. Extremist Hutus murdered more than 70% of the Tutsi male population throughout Rwanda, and today the scars of this genocide-gendercide are evident in Rwanda’s demographic imbalance. Sociologists believe demographic imbalance will continue to affect this country for generations. One profound effect is the seismic shift in power for women in every aspect of this country. The purpose of this paper is to provide an analysis of gender stratification as it relates to women in Rwanda; and it will also examine the implications of demographic imbalance in post-genocide Rwanda. Furthermore, it will provide information about the current roles women play in Rwanda’s economic, political, and social development in the aftermath of the 1994 Rwandan genocide.

To appreciate the current state of Rwanda and the emergence of empowered women in this society; one has to understand its history and the cumulative factors that played significant roles in the ensuing 1994 genocide of 800,000 Tutsis and Moderate Hutus. About 85% of the Rwandan population consists of the Hutu tribe, 14% is Tutsi, and one percent is Twa (Pigmy) tribe. The Twa are indigenous to Rwanda and unlike the more powerful Hutu and Tutsi; they had less direct involvement in the power struggles. Twa tribe is racially the same as Hutu and Tutsi and they primarily made their living from forestry; however, years of deforestation and subjugation from other groups served to separate them from main stream society. Rwandan society essentially installed them as the lowest caste in Rwandan society after the Hutu and Tutsi moved into that region as well as after subsequent colonization by Germany and Belgium.

Traditionally, Hutu were agriculturists and Tutsi were cattle herders. Racially, both Hutus and Tutsis are the same but the differences in features set them apart. The Hutu are stocky and short with rounded face, flat nose, and dark skin. Tutsi, on the other hand, are much taller, lighter skin tone with oval-shaped face and straighter nose. The Tutsis’ physical appearance led many to believe they are of Ethiopian descent (History, 2010).

The Rwandan society is traditionally patriarchal with men typically in more powerful positions than women. Although men and women share the workload of agricultural work; men would only clear the fields, leaving the day-to-day agricultural activities for the women such as breaking the grounds, weeding, planting, and harvesting. Men’s responsibilities primarily involve overseeing livestock with the assistance of younger men in the community. Though women usually involve in market trading; males mainly dominate employment outside the home; with women relegated to maintaining the home, preparing food, and raising children.

The most basic social institution in this society is marriage; and the Rwandan people view bearing children as a sign of wealth and power. For these reasons, women are under constant pressure to marry and have children. With regard to the relative status of Rwandan men and women, to a certain extent, women enjoyed a modicum of economic and political power; however, men held most of the more powerful public authority positions. Colonizers managed to erode and diminish the role women played in politics during the colonial era (History, 2010).

The Twa tribe faced segregation and discrimination from both Hutu and Tutsi; they placed the Twa tribe at the bottom of the social hierarchy and neither the Hutu nor the Tutsi would allow intermarriages with the Twa; however, intermarriages occur between Hutu and Tutsi. Many years of diverse economic and political relation in addition to frequent intermarriages between these two ethnic groups managed to blur the line that distinguishes Tutsi from Hutu. Before the colonization of Rwanda, differences in social status between these groups held more importance than ethnic differences (History, 2010).

However, during the colonial era, both Germany and Belgium operated under the concept of indirect rule that sought to run colonies through existing structures of power. These colonizers worked under the misguided theory that power in Rwanda could be organized along ethnic lines. So for political gain, the ruling Belgian regime placed emphasis on ethnic distinction by issuing identity cards, forcing people to identify with one of the three ethnic groups. Belgian colonizer viewed the Tutsi minority as natural leaders, instituting policies that polarized the two groups, subjugating the majority Hutu and favoring the minority Tutsi. Many sociologists and historians would concur that these policies by the Belgians marked the culmination of violence among ethnic lines, and consequently, set into motion atrocities that would rival that of the holocaust (History, 2010).

The ground-to-air missile that brought down plane of Rwandan president, Juvenal Habyalimana, killing him, was the first salvo that started the 1994 Rwandan genocide. Subsequently, Hutu blamed the assassination of Habyalimana on Tutsi rebels, launching the massacre of 800,000 people. To discuss the Rwandan genocide, one simply cannot ignore one of its key elements, the systematic targeting of male members of the Tutsi tribe by Hutu extremists. This factor led many to believe that this action by the Hutus was not only genocidal it was indeed gendercidal (Jones, 2002). Hutu extremists would round up systematically, male members of the Tutsi tribe and killed them in large numbers; Hutu extremist would also force Tutsi men to watch as they rape the women and girls in the community. The small percentage of male Tutsi who survived, did so by fleeing to neighboring countries like Congo and Zaire.

Throughout the carnage of this genocide-gendercide, the victimization of Tutsi women through rape and mutilation at the hands of extremist Hutu was astounding. Bijleveld, Morssinkhof, & Smeulers (2009) held that, rape was a deliberate attempt used by Hutu to destroy the Tutsi community. Neugebauer, Fisher, Turner, Yamabe, & Sarsfield (2009) report that, mutilations such as arm and leg amputation with machetes was so prevalent; many of the Tutsi population would hide under dead bodies to avoid becoming victims of rape or murder. Neugebauer et al (2009) further state that, immediately after the end of the 1994 Rwandan genocide, majority of the Rwandan population suffers from post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), especially among women who witnessed the murders of their husbands and children.

Widowed by the genocide with no husband for protection, women also suffer the social stigma of rape. Compounding this problem is the more than 2000 children who happen to be products of rape from the genocide (Elizabeth, 1997). These children, called devil’s children are considered Hutu despite the Tutsi ethnicity of their mothers. Elizabeth (1997) reports that, incidence of child abandonment and infanticides are extremely common among rape victims.

Despite the stigma of rape and endurance of countless mutilations, the large proportion of male population who had been killed in the genocide seems to carry even more long-lasting repercussions in Rwanda. One such repercussion is the extreme demographic imbalance, as women outnumber men, making up 80% and men a mere 20% of the Rwandan population (History, 2010). One of the most profound effect of demographic imbalance is the increase in polygamy, which was not legal before the genocide. Polygamy is currently used as a solution for the large proportion of young women and widows who do not have enough men available for the prospect of marriage. Arising from this are the issues of men-sharing and husband-hiring, practices largely responsible for high rates of HIV/AIDS cases in Rwanda (History, 2010).

The physical and psychological status of these women in post-genocide Rwanda became significant in the survival of their country because to a large extent, these widows and rape victims essentially became the main breadwinners. Rwandan women realized very quickly that it was on their backs rest the responsibility of rebuilding the country. Today, Rwandan women are at the forefront of their countries’ economic, social, and political development. Rwanda stands as a shining example for other developing countries; and it demonstrates how empowered women can revolutionize fundamentally economies decimated by crises or conflicts as they fight to break cycles of poverty. No longer just relegated to domestic roles; these women found opportunities in fertile lands that ordinarily their slaughtered husbands, brothers, and fathers would inherit before the genocide.

As the surviving Rwandan population sought to rebuild; technical and financial aid from the international community allows entrepreneurialism to spread among women. Women are the driving force of Rwandan economy, investing in industries from agribusinesses to tourism. Although both men and women invest in small businesses, research reveal that women made better investors, showing more willingness to learn about modern technologies and techniques designed to improve profit and the quality of product such as coffee. Rwandan women are more likely than men to invest their profits on improving family, providing education for their children, improving nutrition, renovating homes, and increasing savings rates (Scholer, Domeisen, & Hulm 2007).

Urbanization also affects this small African nation, with a large proportion of Rwandan population living in the cities. Women’s influence on the Rwandan economy and the country in general can be seen everywhere. Today, it is not uncommon to find women working in factories, working on construction sites, and even driving taxi cabs. Though many of the old entrenched, patriarchal attitudes still exist; today, 55% of Rwandan government consists of women. This feat was achieved through a type of social engineering by current president Kagame, who many viewed as using ambitious policies design to help women both politically and economically. These constitutional policies require that at least 30% of all cabinet and parliament seats should go automatically to women, the remaining seats are left open for regular elections.

From this development, Rwandan government became the first in the world, with females as the majority, claiming 56% of government seats. Women hold positions as Supreme Court Chief, education minister, foreign minister, police commissioner general, and even the speaker of the house. These women use their new-found acquired status to push for change in social policies that affects women negatively for thousands of years in efforts to improve gender equality. These women managed to change many archaic, patriarchal, and discriminatory laws; they passed legislation that makes domestic violence and child abuse unlawful, and abolished the law that requires a husband’s signature on bank loans. Additionally, they have enacted policies that will place more focus on education, population control, HIV/AIDS, and contraceptive campaigns.

Conclusion

Difficult to comprehend how so many atrocities could occur in such a short period; while the world slept, Rwanda lost 800,000 of its population in about 100 days. The scourge of the 1994 Rwandan genocide was indeed a crime against humanity; and like the holocaust, the world must stand up and say, never again. What happened in Rwanda serves to emphasize that segregation, discrimination or subjugation of any particular group in society is simply unacceptable. Emperor of Ethiopia, Haile Selassie’s 1963 speech to the United Nation rings true when he spoke about world-peace that, until the philosophy that holds one group inferior than another, is finally and permanently, discredited, and abandon—then there will be no peace. Most post-conflict countries would simply buckle under major crises or conflicts; sadly, out of this devastation rise women who for some, saw opportunities that allowed them some semblance of equality for the first time. Rwandan women demonstrate to other women in developing countries that given the opportunities, females are just as capable as their male counterparts. Moreover, these women prove that acquiring a voice, allows them to influence policies and legislations that affect their welfare. These policies not only benefit women, they also make family, local communities, and society stronger as well as more productive. Rwanda is a long way from complete recovery; however, this seismic shift in gender roles and status in post-genocide Rwanda alters forever the way today’s generation of boys view their mothers and sisters and offers profound lesson for other developing countries that have difficulty rebuilding from the devastation of conflict.

References

Bijleveld, C., Morssinkhof, A., & Smeulers, A. (2009). Rape Victimization During the

Rwandan Genocide. International Criminal Justice Review (Sage Publications), 19(2),

208-224. Retrieved July 5, 2010, from International Security & Counter Terrorism Reference

Center database.

Elizabeth, R. (1997). The Outcasts. New York Times Magazine, 37. Retrieved July 3, 2010, from

Academic Search Complete database.

History. (2010). Rwanda Country Review, 6-8. Retrieved July 2, 2010, from Business Source

Complete database.

Jones, A. (2002). Problems of Genocide–Gendercide Studies and Future Agendas: a

Comparative Approach. Journal of Genocide Research, 4(1), 127-135.

doi:10.1080/14623520120113937

Neugebauer, R., Fisher, P., Turner, J., Yamabe, S., Sarsfield, J., & Stehling-Ariza, T. (2009).

Post-Traumatic Stress Reactions Among Rwandan Children and Adolescents in the Early

Aftermath of Genocide. International Journal Of Epidemiology, 38(4), 1033-1045.

Retrieved July 2, 2010, from MEDLINE with Full Text database.

Scholer, M., Domeisen, N., & Hulm, P. (2007). Rwandan Coffee Goes from Ordinary to

Star(bucks). International Trade Forum, (1), 23. Retrieved July 3, 2010, from MasterFILE

Premier database.

.

SOC 120/Checkpoint/week 1 checkpoint Sociological Research Methods.docx

Sociological Research Methods 1

Sociological Research Methods

Dawnette Dunkley

Axia College of University of Phoenix

Sociological Research Methods

The purpose of the article was to examine the major public health issue of suicide among the American Indian population. Researchers believe this issue is so severe, its effect on Native American communities is similar to the effect that wars and acts of terrorism have on the general public (Olson & Wahab, 2006). The research methods used in the article include interviews as well as previous data findings.

The authors of the article interviewed mental health professionals and scholars who deal with suicide prevention. Previous data findings also help the authors to analyze major risk factors that contribute to the high suicide rates among Native Americans. Information from these data includes barriers that impede research, inadequate prevention programs, and the need for more mental-health service. Additionally, the data provides information for necessary research and practices.

More than any other ethnic groups, American Indians appear to have the highest instances of suicide, especially among adolescents and young adults. Shaughnessy, Doshi, & Jones (2004) cite that, the second-leading cause of death among Native Americans 15-24 age demographic happens to be suicide. Olson & Wahab (2006) find that high suicide rates among adolescents and young adult is one the most disturbing trends on most Indian reservations. Data reveals that 37.1 in 100,000 Native Americans between ages 15 to 24 have two and a half times more suicide rates than people of the same age range in the general public.

Quantitative data seems to be the methodological orientation that best reflects in the article. Researchers used Structural-functional approach and seem to gather their information with the use of quantitative data. Furthermore, the researchers remain neutral observers in conducting this research.

References

Olson, L., & Wahab, S. (2006). American Indians and Suicide: A Neglected Area of Research.

Trauma, Violence, & Abuse, 7(1), 19-33. doi: 10.1177/1524838005283005.

Shaughnessy, L., Doshi, S., & Jones, S. (2004). Attempted Suicide and Associated Health Risk

Behaviors Among Native American High School Students. The Journal of School Health,

74(5), 177-182. Retrieved from Medline with Full Text database.

.

SOC 120/Checkpoint/week 2 checkpoint Culture Shock.docx

Culture Shock 4

Culture Shock

Dawette Dunkley

Axia College of University of Phoenix

Culture Shock

Culture shock is inevitable in just about any other culture different from my own, and even more so in isolated and secluded culture such as the Yanomamo tribe. If I were to visit and study the Yanomamo, I would have to make certain preparation to safeguard against possible culture shock.

My preparation would involve doing background research on their history, customs, geographic location, and climate. As communication will obviously be an issue, learning about their language or dialect as well as using an interpreter on the trip will be essential.

I experienced culture shock as I was visiting the home of one of my coworkers. She is of Middle Eastern descent and originally from Tehran, Iran. Although I knew the first-language of my co-worker was Farsi; I have never heard her communicate in her native tongue because she speaks fluent English. Therefore, I was shocked by the language as well as certain norms among her family.

I found that unlike my coworker, her parents and other family members had more difficulty speaking in the English language; so she spent most of the time interpreting. Interestingly, I noticed that my coworker appeared to be more animated whenever she communicates in her native tongue as oppose to communicating in English. Additionally, I noticed it was the norm for the family to sit on the floor during dinner, and instead of cakes and pies for dessert, they served fresh fruits like oranges, pears, and tangerines.

Four components of culture include symbol, language, values, and norms (Axia College, 2010). Symbols such as body language and hand gestures vary from culture to culture, as one symbol may carry positive meaning in one culture but may carry negative connotations in another. Language is at the heart of communication in any culture; in fact, Axia College (2010) cites that, the cultural lens of language allows people to understand and view the world around them. Values, beliefs, and norms help to set standards by which to assess what society holds to be most important. These standards serve as guidelines for the way people live and interact, as they guide the behavior, beliefs, and norms of society. Understanding the major components in culture in my own experience would help to avoid misunderstandings, miscommunications, and the obvious culture shock. Had I taken the time to learn more about my coworker’s background such as her customs, language, beliefs, and norms; my experience would have been more comfortable.

References

Axia College of University of Phoenix. (2010). Culture. Retrieved May 25, 2010, from

Axia College, Week Two Reading, aXces, SOC/120—Sociology Skills Course Web site.

SOC 120/Checkpoint/week 3 checkpoint Social Construction of Reality.docx

Social Construction of Reality 3

Social Construction of Reality

Dawnette Dunkley

Axia College of University of Phoenix

Social Construction of Reality

A few roles that make up of my ascribed status in society include being a female, a daughter, and a sister. I am the ninth out of 10 children in my nuclear family, and as one of two girls in a household with eight brothers, help to influence my outlook on life in general. I was aware that among my siblings exist two distinct generations and my position as the ninth child within this family structure makes me a part of the younger generation of siblings.

The older set of siblings sets the tone and with the guidance of my parents, lead by example. They were such high achievers that from an early age I thought in order to keep up with them academically or otherwise, I would have to be perfect and failure was not an option.

My family dynamic helps to shape my reality and over the years, I find that being a perfectionist carries over into just about every aspect of my life. If I had doubts that I may not excel at something, I would usually not attempt to even pursue it. This perfectionist attitude I believe, is largely responsible for my fear of failure, which causes me to miss out on many opportunities in life, including me not pursuing higher education earlier.

Today, I can view more objectively why I grew up believing I could not compete within my family dynamic because I now realize that with all the achievements of my other siblings, most of them are quintessential A-type personalities, and for my voice to be heard within that group was almost futile.

Ironically, my achieved status as a student, and especially in high school, I usually emerge as a leader among my peers. I was president of the student council and played active roles on debate teams and cheerleading teams among other activities. I believe my large family with its different personalities helps me in the way I interact in school. I could interact with just about everyone; I was comfortable being friends with the popular crowds and the outcasts alike, as affiliating with any one clique or group did not necessarily appealed to me. I believe that the social construction of my family greatly influenced my social status, the way I relate to others as well as my social interactions in general.

SOC 120/Checkpoint/week 4 checkpoint Social and Formal Groups Comparison.docx

Social and Formal Groups Comparison 3

Social and Formal Groups Comparison

Dawnette Dunkley

Axia College of University of Phoenix

Social and formal Groups Comparison

For most of my life, it seems like I have been a part of some type of group or organization. One social group that I was a part of in the past was high school cheerleading; and one formal group in which I was involved was the Girls’ Brigade (GB). Although both groups promote socialization; the Girls’ Brigade had more rigid rules and code of conduct as oppose to cheerleading group, which norms were more informal and flexible.

The cheerleading group had leaders in the form of a coaches or head-cheerleaders; hierarchy was nonexistent, activities were essentially the same for everyone, and our shared common interest in cheerleading was the main criteria for this group. Besides cheerleading, we would have fund-raisers that help to pay for uniforms and gears; additionally, this group also promotes closer personal relationships among its members.

On the other hand, I was involved in the Girls’ Brigade as a teenager; this group had a more formal structure. With regard to leadership, the GB trains all its leaders as well as equips children and youth workers. Its hierarchy has the Commissioned Officer at the top, and anyone aspiring to become one has to undertake a basic course called the Adult Leadership Training Program. Unlike the cheerleading team with no clear chain of command, the GB operates at different levels. Activities usually vary depends on age groups; girls between seven and 11 were known as juniors, between 10 and 14 were seniors, and between 13 and 18 were Brigaders.

The GB was essentially a Christian charity group that works with girls and young women of every socioeconomic background in local communities. Its main mission is about providing girls and young women a sense of responsibility, the importance of community involvement, and prepares them to be contributing members of society. GB groups conducts meetings about five evenings per week in churches, schools, and community centers. Some activities include camping, fund-raising, marching, and community service. Among its many community services was the running of errands and spending time with elderly in the community. The Girls’ Brigade is spiritual, physical, educational, and service base; and fosters basic Christian values and leadership qualities in girls in local communities.

SOC 120/Checkpoint/week 6 checkpoint Deviant Behavior.docx

Deviant Behavior 4

Deviant Behavior

Dawnette Dunkley

Axia College of University of Phoenix

Deviant Behavior

Homosexuality is one human behavior considers deviant in one society but not deviant in others. For example, Iranian society does not tolerate gay and lesbian lifestyles and views these behaviors as going against the norm. The Iranian culture and theocratic government are factors that contribute to Iranian society’s perspective with regard to this particular deviant behavior.

Religious teachings form the basis of Iranian laws; its legal codes base fundamentally on conservative interpretation of Islamic sacred laws. One such law has to do with sexual relations; as sexual relations outside of traditional, heterosexual marriage (adultery, sodomy) are considered illegal. Incidentally, this law makes no distinction between consensual or non-consensual sex between heterosexuals; however, consensual homosexual relation is a crime that carries a maximum punishment of death. Kami (2010) states that, today, at the discretion of Iranian courts, punishments range between paying fines, imprisonment, public lashing, or public execution.

Though other more secular and liberal societies do not view homosexuality as deviant behavior, Iranians regard homosexuality as a taboo subject. Its government wants people to believe that everyone in Iranian society is heterosexual; in fact, its prime minister, Mahmoud Ahmadinejad publicly states that no homosexuals exist in Iran (Kami, 2010). They basically believe that homosexual lifestyle is a violation of the supreme will of God. Unfortunately, social prejudice and constant threats of criminal charges force many gay and lesbian Iranians to socialize discretely.

Regardless of socioeconomic background, the stigma of homosexuality in Iran affects negatively anyone who engages in gay or lesbian lifestyles. People in powerful or less than powerful status receive relatively similar punishment at the discretion of the courts. However, charges of homosexuality are systematically used as a weapon against powerful people who speaks out against the Iranian government. One such person is Ali-Akbar Saidi Sirjani (writer, poet, and journalist), known for speaking out openly against the government was arrested. Besides drug charges, he was also accused of homosexual activity, and subsequently died mysteriously in prison (Article19, 2010).

References

Article19. (2010). Iran. Retrieved June 24, 2010, from

http://www.article19.org/speaking-out/iran

Kami, J. (2010, February 9). Ahmadinejad Says No Gays in Iran. Retrieved June 24, 2010, from

http://sundial.csun.edu/2010/02/ahmadinejad-says-no-gays-in-iran/

SOC 120/Checkpoint/week 7 checkpoint Urbanization Trends.docx

Urbanization Trends 3

Urbanization Trends

Dawnette Dunkley

Axia College of University of Phoenix

Urbanization Trends

Urbanization is the concentration of people into cities; it is basically about population redistribution within a society as it relates to the changing patterns of social life. High concentration of jobs for professionals and skilled workers as well as lack of employment opportunities in rural areas, are usually responsible for urbanization trends. These urban growth trends have much to do with developing countries moving away from economies that depend on agriculture; this factor has many farmers and their children seeking industrial work instead. The problem for people living in rural areas is that most of these industrial jobs locate in and around major cities, forcing rural families to move away from rural areas, causing overpopulation in urban areas.

The city of Sao Paulo, Brazil is one such urban area; as the second largest city in the world, Sao Paulo is home to approximately five million people living in favelas, slums, shanty towns, and urban sprawl (Henkin, 1999). Part of this problem came about out of poor city planning and developers failed attempt at creating the largest business and commercial center in Latin America. Problems arose as the infrastructure of Sao Paulo could not support its rapid population growth; carrying serious implications such as traffic congestion, inadequate public transportation, high crime rate, slum housing, pollution, and poor sanitation (Starobin, 2009).

Unlike migrant workers who had some level of prosperity during the 1950s, people involve in rural-urban migration face tougher challenges today, with stiffer competition for jobs. Sao Paulo has a nine percent unemployment rate and underemployment is even higher with 1.5 million people. This issue of high unemployment rate not only increases prevalence of crimes; it prevents social mobility, as moving out of the slums and favelas would allow people the basic necessities like toilet, clean water, and electricity.

References

Henkin, S. (1999, August). Sao Paulo: Urbanization Run Amok. World and I, 14.1. Retrieved

July 1, 2010, from General OneFile via Gale database.

Starobin, P. (2009, May 15). Brazil in the Mind of America: The Favelas. National Journal.

Retrieved July 1, 2010, from General OneFile via Gale database.

SOC 120/Checkpoint/week 8 checkpoint Social Change and Modernization.docx

Social Change and Modernization 1

Social Change and Modernization

Dawnette Dunkley

Axia College of University of Phoenix

Social Change and Modernization

Social change refers to a broad term used to describe inevitable changes in the social structure of society over time. Social change essentially transforms culture and social institutions. Key features involve in social change are social behavior, social relationships, events or actions that affects society, and advocacy for social causes.

The Civil Rights Movement, Women’s Liberation Movement, The Gay Rights Movement, and Environmental Movement are examples of social movements in the United States. In resistance to racial discrimination and segregation; Civil Rights Movement used non-violent strategies such as marches, civil disobedience, and boycotts to end racial inequality. Landmark event such as Brown versus the Board of Education and the Civil Rights Act inspire other liberation movements as well as change legislations that benefit African Americans and other minorities. This movement gave African Americans the same basic rights as their white counterparts.

One of the most consequential social movements; the Women’s Liberation Movement fought against ingrained injustices against women in society. This movement fought to improve many facets of society such as job inequalities, abortion rights, holding public office, childcare, gender stereotypes, and sexist oppression. The Gay Rights Movement came about out of the need to end the criminalization of homosexuality and protecting the rights of homosexuals. This movement is still extremely controversial, receiving opposition primarily from religious groups and conservatives. Today, in the United States, homosexuality is not a criminal behavior, some states legalize gay marriage, and some companies even provide similar health benefits for heterosexual and homosexual spouses (Infoplease, n.d.). Environmental movement, though its theory on global warming is controversial, brought public awareness of the consequences human behavior has on the natural environment.

Modernization is the process of social change that starts with the advent of industrialization. Expansion of personal choice, weakening of traditional communities, increase in diverse beliefs, and keen awareness of the future are aspects of modernity. Along with urbanization that helps to transform people’s lives; new ideas, inventions, and teamwork are key features of modernization. The space program’s launching of satellites t enhance communication is one example of modernization. Second example of modernization is the invention of computers that influence every aspect of modern society. Computers increase easier and faster access to information; allows faster communication across long distances; and facilitates efficiency in shopping and commerce. Development of means of transportation is a third example; this promotes national and international trade on a large scale. Fourth example is advances in medical technology; this type of technology helps to revolutionize health care delivery and increase life expectancy.

References

Infoplease. (n.d.). Gay-Rights Movements. Retrieved July 8, 2010, from

http://www.infoplease.com/ce6/society/A0820370.html

 

SOC 120/Checkpoint/week 9 Capstone Discussion Question.docx

Week 9 Capstone DQ

Please post a 150-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.  The due date for this Discussion Question is Week 9, Day 2.

Post your response to the following: Which topics or concepts interested you most in this course?  How can you apply them to your life?  Were there any topics you would like to explore further?  Discuss why they were meaningful to you

The topics that interest me the most were social/gender stratification, race and ethnicity, culture, deviance, urbanization, and modernization. Though I have had basic knowledge on some of these topics in previous classes; this course makes me aware that my limited knowledge barely scratch the surface on some of these topics. This course challenged me to do more indepth researches, and in doing so, learn about how sociologists create data on the factors that helps to shape society. It is also interesting to see how people's actions and worldview are primarily based on the values, norms, and behavior of society. Our discussions on nature verus nurture and the impact both have on a child's development will continue to be subject on which people will have disagreements. It seem there are no wrong or right answer in that regard because some of the most nurturing and law abiding parents can sometimes produce some of the most deviant in society and vice versa.  Applying what I learn about culture, race, and ethnicity will be easy as I will continue to live by the golden rule; "treat others the way you would want to be treated." The topic of social and gender stratification is one that I would like to explore further and especially as it relates to women. Women's rights issues is something I am passionate about; maybe my upbringing and background has much to do with the way I feel about this issue. Because I was brought up to believe that women should have equal rights as men and not be treated as second class citizens; and they should also have a voice in the policies that affects their lives.

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